Demystifying Promoter & Promoter Group: A Compilation of FAQs
Pammy Jaiswal, Partner and Ankit Singh Mehar, Assistant Manager | Corplaw@vinodkothari.com
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Pammy Jaiswal, Partner and Ankit Singh Mehar, Assistant Manager | Corplaw@vinodkothari.com
Access our resource centre on:
– SEBI notifies light-touch regulations for AIFs in which only Accredited Investors are investors and flexibilities for Large Value Funds (LVFs)
– Payal Agarwal, Partner | corplaw@vinodkothari.com
This version: 20th November, 2025
Since its introduction in 2021, the concept of Accredited Investors (AIs) has been through some changes. A Consultation Paper was published on 17th June, 2025 to provide for certain flexibilities in the accreditation framework. Another Consultation Paper dated 8th August 2025 (‘AI CP’) proposed to bring light-touch regulations for AIF schemes seeking investments from only AIs, including extension of various exemptions to such schemes, that are currently available to Large Value Funds (LVFs).
Further, vide another Consultation Paper (‘LVF CP’), some relaxations were also proposed to be extended to Large Value Funds (LVFs) for AIs. Note that the LVFs are available only for AIs, and hence, the Amendment Regulations define the AIs-only schemes to include LVF.
The SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) (Third Amendment) Regulations, 2025 has been notified on 18th November, 2025, thus introducing the concept of AI-only schemes in the regulatory framework. Note that, vide the 2nd Amendment Regulations, the angel funds have also been exclusively restricted to Accredited Investors only. See an article on the Angel Funds 2.0: Navigating the New Regulatory Landscape.
An AI is considered as an investor having professional expertise and experience of making riskier investments. Reg 2(1)(ab) of AIF Regulations defines an accredited investor as any person who is granted a certificate of accreditation by an accreditation agency, and specifies eligibility criteria. The eligibility criteria is as follows:

Further, certain categories of investors are deemed to be AIs, that is, certificate of accreditation is not required, such as, Central and State Governments, developmental agencies set up under the aegis of the Central Government or the State Governments, sovereign wealth funds and multilateral agencies, funds set up by the Government, Category I foreign portfolio investors, qualified institutional buyers, etc.
AIFs are investment vehicles pooling funds of sophisticated investors, and not for soliciting money from retail investors. The measure of sophistication, as specified in the AIF Regulations currently, is in the form of the ‘minimum commitment threshold’. Reg 10(c) of the Regulations require a minimum investment of Rs. 1 crore, except in case of investors who are employees or directors of the AIF or of the Manager.
There are certain shortcomings of considering the minimum commitment threshold as the metric of risk sophistication of an investor, such as:
The concept of AIs, as proposed in February 2021, was to introduce a class of investors who have an understanding of various financial products and the risks and returns associated with them and therefore, are able to take informed decisions regarding their investments. Accreditation of investors is a way of ensuring that investors are capable of assessing risk responsibly.
The June 2025 CP indicated that it is being examined to move AIFs gradually in an exclusively for AIs approach, starting with investments in angel funds and in framework for co-investing in unlisted securities of investee companies of AIFs. Accordingly, the present CP has proposed a gradual and consultative transition from ‘minimum commitment threshold’ to ‘accreditation status’ as a metric of risk sophistication of an investor.
The accreditation status is to be ensured at the time of onboarding of investors only. Therefore, if an investor subsequently loses the status of AI in interim, the same shall still be considered as an AI for the AI only scheme, once on-boarded. The following relaxations have been extended to AIs-only schemes, in order to provide for a light-touch regulatory framework, from investor protection viewpoint, considering that the AIs have the necessary knowledge and means to understand the features including risks involved in such investment products:
| Topic | Regulatory requirement for other AIFs | Our Comments |
| Differential rights of investors [reg 20(22)] | Shall be pari-passu, differential rights may be offered to select investors, without affecting the interest of other investors of the scheme in compliance with SEBI Circular dated 13th Dec, 2024 r/w Implementation Standards | This facilitates differential rights to different classes of investors within a scheme. |
| Extension of tenure of close-ended funds [reg 13(5)] | up to two years subject to approval of two-thirds of the unit holders by value of their investment in AIF | This facilitates a longer tenure extension to an existing close-ended scheme, if suited to investors. However, it is further clarified that the maximum extension permissible to such AI only schemes, inclusive of any tenure extension prior to such conversion, shall be 5 years. |
| Certification criteria for key investment team of Manager [reg 4(g)(i)] | Atleast one key personnel with relevant NISM certification | The investors, being accredited, the reliance on key investment team of the Manager is comparatively low. |
Further, in case of AIs-only Funds, the responsibilities of Trustee as specified in Reg 20 r/w the Fourth Schedule shall be fulfilled by the Manager itself. This is based on the premise that, the investors, being accredited, the reliance on Trustee for investor protection is comparatively low.
The concept of LVF was also introduced in 2021, along with the concept of AIs. An LVF, in fact, is an AIs only fund, with a minimum investment threshold. Reg 2(1)(pa) of the AIF Regulations defines LVF as:
“large value fund for accredited investors” means an Alternative Investment Fund or scheme of an Alternative Investment Fund in which each investor (other than the Manager, Sponsor, employees or directors of the Alternative Investment Fund or employees or directors of the Manager) is an accredited investor and invests not less than seventy crore rupees.
Since an LVF is included within the meaning of an AIs-only scheme, all exemptions as available to an AIs only scheme, are naturally available with an LVF, although the converse is not true.
In addition to the relaxations extended to an AIs only scheme, there are additional exemptions available to an LVF. These are:
| Regulatory reference | Topic | Exemption for LVF |
| Reg 12(2) | Filing of placement memorandum through merchant banker | Not applicable |
| Reg 12(3) | Comments of SEBI on PPM through merchant banker | Not applicable, only filing with SEBI required |
| Reg 15(1)(c) | Investment concentration for Cat I and Cat II AIFs – cannot invest more than 25% of investable funds in an investee company, directly or through units of other AIFs | May invest upto 50% of investable funds in an investee company, directly or through units of other AIFs |
| Reg 15(1)(d) | Investment concentration for Cat III AIFs – cannot invest more than 10% of investable funds in an investee company, directly or through units of other AIFs | May invest upto 25% of investable funds in an investee company, directly or through units of other AIFs |
The minimum investment threshold for investors in LVF has been reduced from Rs. 70 crores to Rs. 25 crores, based on the recommendations of SEBI’s Alternative Investment Policy Advisory Committee (AIPAC). The rationale is to lower entry barriers to facilitate improved fund raising, without compromising on the level of investor sophistication. The reduction of investment thresholds would also facilitate investments by regulated entities having a strict exposure limit, such as insurance companies.
The extant regulations permitted that the responsibilities of the Investment Committee may be waived by the investors (other than the Manager, Sponsor, and employees/ directors of Manager and AIF), if they have a commitment of at least Rs. 70 crores (USD 10 billion or other equivalent currency), by providing an undertaking to such effect, in the format as provided under Annexure 11 of the AIF Master Circular, including a confirmation that they have the independent ability and mechanism to carry out due diligence of the investments.
The requirement of specific waiver has been omitted for LVFs considering that AIs are already required to provide an undertaking for the purpose of availing benefits of ‘accreditation’. The undertaking, as per the format given in Annexure 8 of the AIF Master Circular states the following:
(i) The prospective investor ‘consents’ to avail benefits under the AI framework.
(ii) The prospective investor has the necessary knowledge and means to understand the features of the investment Product/service eligible for AIs, including the risks associated with the investment.
(iii) The prospective investor is aware that investments by AIs may not be subject to the same regulatory oversight as applicable to investment by other investors.
(iv) The prospective investor has the ability to bear the financial risks associated with the investment.
Similarly, LVFs have been exempt from following the standard PPM template without the requirement of obtaining specific waiver from investors.
One of the proposals of the LVF CP is to permit eligible AIFs, not formed as an LVF, to convert themselves into an LVF and avail the benefits available to LVF schemes. The conversion shall be subject to obtaining positive consent from all the investors. Following the same, the modalities for such migration has been specified by SEBI vide circular dated 8th December, 2025.
Pursuant to such migration, the AIF manager shall ensure that:
Reg 10(f) puts a cap on the maximum number of investors in a scheme. Pursuant to the Amendment Regulations, the cap of 1000 investors shall not include the AIs.
In practice, the number of investors in an AIF is much lower than 1000, and hence, the amendment may not have much of a practical relevance.
The amendments are a step towards providing a lighter regulatory regime for AIFs, meant for sophisticated investors, capable of making well-informed decisions. The move is expected to witness more schemes focussed on AIs only, and thus, bring an AIs only regime for AIFs. In order to differentiate an AIs only scheme or an LVF from other AIF schemes, it is mandatory for the newly launched schemes henceforth to have the words ‘AI only fund’ or ‘LVF’ as the case maybe.
Our resources on the topic-
– Payal Agarwal & Dayita Kanodia (finserv@vinodkothari.com)
Securitisation Transactions in India are primarily governed by:
Consequently, an RBI regulated originator will be required to adhere to both the SSA Directions as well as the SDI Framework in case it intends to go for listing of the securisation notes.
Here, we have discussed the additional prohinitions and compliance requirements for RBI regulated originators which becomes applicable in case of listing of securitisation notes.
| Additional Prohibitions under the SEBI SDI Framework for RBI Regulated Originators | |||
| Para Ref | Relevant Regulatory Provision | Our Comments | |
| Single Asset Securitisation not permitted | 19A(a) | “No obligor shall have more than twenty-five percent in asset pool at the time of issuance.” | An RBI regulated originator will not be able to undertake single asset securitisation if it intends to list the securitisation notes, though the same is permitted under the RBI regulations (proviso to para 5(s) of the SSA Directions). Comments: Single asset securitisation is not a very common practice, but this is explicitly permitted under RBI regulations |
| All assets to be homogenous | 19A(b) | “Assets comprising the securitisation pool shall be homogeneous.” | The RBI SSA Directions only require the assets to be homogeneous in case of simple, transparent, and comparable securitisation transactions (STC Transactions). STC transactions are currently not very common, and in any case, is an investor classification, not that of issuer.For non-STC cases, there is no such requirement. Therefore, originators will be required to ensure that the assets comprising the pool are homogeneous in case they intend to go for listing of the securitisation notes. Comment: Homogeneity may be subjective |
| SPV can only be constituted in the form of a trust | 9(1) | “The special purpose distinct entity shall be constituted in the form of a trust the constitutional document whereof entitles the trustees to issue securitised debt instruments.” | The RBI SSA Directions (para 5(w)) allow SPVs to be constituted in the form of a company, trust or other entity. Comment: Not a very big pain, as SPVs in India are almost always in the trust form. |
| Originator and Trustee not be under the same group or control. | 10(3) | “No special purpose distinct entity shall acquire any debt or receivables from any originator which is part of the same group or which is under the same control as the trustee.” | This requirement, although essential to maintain independence, is not a part of the RBI SSA Directions. Accordingly, the same will be required to be ensured. |
| Additional Compliances applicable to RBI regulated Originators under the SEBI SDI Framework | |||
| Para Ref | Relevant Regulatory Provision | Our Comments | |
| Registration of Trustees under the Securities and Exchange Board of India(Debenture Trustees) Regulations, 1993 | 4(b) | “(1) On and from the commencement of these regulations, no person shall make a public offer of securitised debt instruments or seek listing for such securitised debt instruments unless –XX(b)all its trustees are registered with the Board under 26[the Securities and Exchange Board of India(Debenture Trustees) Regulations, 1993];XX” | Accordingly, the trustees will be required to comply with the SEBI Debenture Trustee regulations. Comment: This is a useful provision, and mostly, the SPV trustees are registered debenture trustees. Hence, it is a useful regulatory requirement. |
| Contents of the Instrument of Trust | Schedule IV | Schedule IV of the SEBI SDI Framework prescribes the minimum contents of the instrument of trust. | The contents prescribed under the SDI Framework are more detailed as compared to the RBI SSA Directions, which only indicate the contents of the trust deed. Comment: Useful regulation, serving the purpose of proper disclosures. Notably, disclosures are the domain of the securities regulator. |
| Quarterly reports to the trustee about the performance of the underlying pool and auditor certificate | 10A(1) and (2) | “(1) The originator shall provide the periodic reports to the trustee regarding the performance of the underlying asset pool, at least on a quarterly basis. (2) The originator shall provide a certificate from its auditor (s) regarding the disclosures of underlying asset pool assigned to the securitization trust, as made by the originator, on quarterly basis.” | The RBI SSA Directions (para 114 and 115) require semi-annual disclosures to be made. Further, there is no requirement to provide an auditor’s certificate under the RBI Directions. Comment: Useful regulation, serving the purpose of investor information. These disclosures are typically part of the securities regulators’ domain. |
| Minimum Ticket Size for subsequent transfers | 30A(2)(i) | “The minimum ticket size for subsequent transfers of a securitised debt instrument shall be as follows:(i)for originators which are not regulated by the Reserve Bank of India, the minimum ticket size shall be rupees one crore.” | In case of public offer of SDIs, the minimum ticket size is Rs. 1 Crore even for subsequent transfers of SDIs. This requirement is more stringent as compared to the RBI SSA Directions (para 28), which only requires the minimum ticket size of Rs. 1 Crore to be seen at the time of issuance. Comments: The requirement has only been introduced for the public offer of SDIs. Public issue of SDIs is howe,ver not a common practice currently. Accordingly, this may not seem to be a major concern for RBI regulated originators. |
| Other miscellaneous provisions – offer period, allotment period, dematerialisation | 29, 31(1) | Offer Period: No public offer of securitised debt instruments shall remain open for less than two working days and more than ten working days. Allotment Period:The securitised debt instruments shall be allotted to the investors within five days of closure of the offer. Further, the securitises will need to be issued mandatorily in demat form. | Comments: These requirements are applicable only in case of public offers. |
| Facility to avail electronic bidding platform | Master Circular dated May 16, 2025 | On issue and listing of Non-convertible Securities, Securitised Debt Instruments, Security Receipts, Municipal Debt Securities and Commercial Paper and on Review of provisions pertaining to Electronic Book Provider (EBP) platform to increase its efficacy and utility | The facility of using EBP has been extended to SDIs too. Comment: This is an optional facility, and as of now, very limited issuers have made use of this. |
| LODR Requirements – Chapter III | |||
| Disclosure by KMPs, directors, etc | Reg 5 | 5. The listed entity shall ensure that key managerial personnel, directors, promoters or any other person dealing with the listed entity, complies with responsibilities or obligations, if any, assigned to them under these regulations 51[:]52[Provided that the key managerial personnel, directors, promoter, promoter group or any other person dealing with the listed entity shall disclose to the listed entity all information that is relevant and necessary for the listed entity to ensure compliance with the applicable laws.] | This requires the concerned officers of the Listed Entity (in this case, the SPV] to make requisite disclosures for the purpose of complying with the law. Comment: Does not seem to be practically relevant, as Originators’ KMPs mostly do not have interest in the SPV. However, where needed, it is a useful disclosure. |
| Compliance officer to be appointed. | Reg 6, Chap III | 6. (1) A listed entity shall appoint a qualified company secretary as the compliance officer Other provisions of the regulation | An issuer of SDIs is required to appoint a Compliance Officer. Comments: The requirement may be complied with at SPV level. |
| Share Transfer Agent | Reg 7 | (1)The listed entity shall appoint a share transfer agent or manage the share transfer facility in-house:Other requirements of the regulation | The requirement to appoint a share transfer agent is typically part of the securities regulators’ domain. Comment: Mostly not relevant as the securities are offered in demat form. |
| Information to intermediaries | Reg 8 | The listed entity, wherever applicable, shall co-operate with and submit correct and adequate information to the intermediaries registered with the Board such as credit rating agencies, registrar to an issue and share transfer agents, debenture trustees etc, within timelines and procedures specified under the Act, regulations and circulars issued there under:Provided that requirements of this regulation shall not be applicable to the units issued by mutual funds listed on a recognised stock exchange(s) for which the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996 shall be applicable. | Requirement to share information with the information agencies. Comment: In case of listed SDIs, this is a part of the information eco system. |
| Policy for preservation of documents | Reg 9 | The listed entity shall have a policy for preservation of documents, etc. | Useful for preservation of documents. |
| Filing of reports, statements and other documents | Reg 10 | (1) The listed entity shall file the reports, statements, documents, filings and any other information with the recognised stock exchange(s) on the electronic platform as specified by the Board or the recognised stock exchange(s).Other provisions of the regulation | This is a general filing requirement for filing of information on the stock exchanges. |
| Scheme of arrangement to not violate, affect or override the provisions of securities law | Reg 11 | The listed entity shall ensure that any scheme of arrangement /amalgamation /merger /reconstruction /reduction of capital etc. to be presented to any Court or Tribunal does not in any way violate, override or limit the provisions of securities laws or requirements of the stock exchange(s):. | Mostly not relevant for SDIs |
| Use of electronic mode of payments | Reg 12 | The listed entity shall use any of the electronic mode of payment facility approved by the Reserve Bank of India, in the manner specified in Schedule I, for the payment of the following:(a) dividends;(b) interest;(c) redemption or repayment amounts: | Provides for mode of payments to investors. Not a cumbersome requirement as it refers to RBI-permitted payment systems to be used. |
| SCORES | Reg 13 | (1) 61[The listed entity shall redress investor grievances promptly but not later than twenty-one calendar days from the date of receipt of the grievance and in such manner as may be specified by the Board.]Other provisions of the Regulation | This relates to use of the SCORES mechanism for settling investor issues |
| Payment of Fees and charges | Reg 14 | The listed entity shall pay all such fees or charges, as applicable, to the recognised stock exchange(s), in the manner specified by the Board or the recognised stock exchange(s). | This mandates payment of listing fees. Usual provision for all listed securities |
| LODR Regulations – Chapter VIII | |||
| The entire Chapter is dedicated to listed SDI issuance. | Reg 81 | Applicability(1) The provisions of this chapter shall apply to Special Purpose Distinct Entity issuing securitised debt instruments and trustees of Special Purpose Distinct Entity shall ensure compliance with each of the provisions of these regulations.(2) The expressions “asset pool”, “clean up call option”, “credit enhancement”, “debt or receivables”, “investor”, “liquidity provider”, “obligor”, “originator”, “regulated activity”, “scheme”, “securitization”, “securitized debt instrument”, “servicer”, “special purpose distinct entity”, “sponsor” and “trustee” shall have the same meaning as assigned to them under [Securities and Exchange Board of India (Issue and Listing of Securitised Debt Instruments and Security Receipts) Regulations, 2008]555; | Specifies applicability of the Chapter and refers to meaning of relevant expressions |
| Intimation and filings with stock exchange(s) | Reg 82 | (1) The listed entity shall intimate the Stock exchange, of its intention to issue new securitized debt instruments either through a public issue or on private placement basis (if it proposes to list such privately placed debt securities on the Stock exchange) prior to issuing such securities.(2) The listed entity shall intimate to the stock exchange(s), at least two working days in advance, excluding the date of the intimation and date of the meeting, regarding the meeting of its board of trustees, at which the recommendation or declaration of issue of securitized debt instruments or any other matter affecting the rights or interests of holders of securitized debt instruments is proposed to be considered.(3) The listed entity shall submit such statements, reports or information including financial information pertaining to Schemes to stock exchange within seven days from the end of the month/ actual payment date, either by itself or through the servicer, on a monthly basis in the format as specified by the Board from time to time:Provided that where periodicity of the receivables is not monthly, reporting shall be made for the relevant periods.(4) The listed entity shall provide the stock exchange, either by itself or through the servicer, loan level information, without disclosing particulars of individual borrowers, in manner specified by stock exchange. | This regulation is equivalent of reg 29 in case of listed equities, and provides for prior intimation to investors for certain critical actions on the part of issuers. |
| Disclosure of information having bearing on performance/operation of listed entity and/or price sensitive information | 83 read with Part D of Schedule III | (1) The listed entity shall promptly inform the stock exchange(s) of all information having bearing on the on performance/operation of the listed entity and price sensitive information.(2) Without prejudice to the generality of sub-regulation(1), the listed entity shall make the disclosures specified in Part D of Schedule III.Explanation.- The expression ‘promptly inform’, shall imply that the stock exchange must be informed must as soon as practically possible and without any delay and that the information shall be given first to the stock exchange(s) before providing the same to any third party. | This regulation is to ensure the regular flow of information from issuers to investors, to maintain information symmetry. This is typical for all listed securities – for example, Reg 30 in case of listed equities, and reg 51 in case of listed non convertible debt securities. |
| Credit Rating to be periodically reviewed and any revision to be notified | Reg 84 | (1) Every rating obtained by the listed entity with respect to securitised debt instruments shall be periodically reviewed, preferably once a year, by a credit rating agency registered by the Board.(2) Any revision in rating(s) shall be disseminated by the stock exchange(s). | This Regulation requires a mandatory annual review of credit ratings on the SDIs by a SEBI-registered CRA, and intimation of any revision to the stock exchanges. |
| Information to Investors | Reg 85 | (1) The listed entity shall provide either by itself or through the servicer, loan level information without disclosing particulars of individual borrower to its investors.(2) The listed entity shall provide information regarding revision in rating as a result of credit rating done periodically in terms of regulation 84 above to its investors.(3) The information at sub-regulation (1) and (2) may be sent to investors in electronic form/fax if so consented by the investors.(4) The listed entity shall display the email address of the grievance redressal division and other relevant details prominently on its website and in the various materials / pamphlets/ advertisement campaigns initiated by it for creating investor awareness. | This clause requires certain pool level information; useful information for the poolComment: As in case of other jurisdictions, the disclosure requirements are typically laid by the securities regulations |
| Terms of Securitized Debt Instruments | Reg 86 | (1) The listed entity shall ensure that no material modification shall be made to the structure of the securitized debt instruments in terms of coupon, conversion, redemption, or otherwise without prior approval of the recognised stock exchange(s) where the securitized debt instruments are listed and the listed entity shall make an application to the recognised stock exchange(s) only after the approval by Trustees.(2) The listed entity shall ensure timely interest/ redemption payment.(3) The listed entity shall ensure that where credit enhancement has been provided for, it shall make credit enhancement available for listed securitized debt instruments at all times.(4) The listed entity shall not forfeit unclaimed interest and principal and such unclaimed interest and principal shall be, after a period of seven years, transferred to the Investor Protection and Education Fund established under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Investor Protection and Education Fund) Regulations, 2009.(5) Unless the terms of issue provide otherwise, the listed entity shall not select any of its listed securitized debt instruments for redemption otherwise than on pro rata basis or by lot and shall promptly submit to the recognised stock exchange(s) the details thereof.(6) The listed entity shall remain listed till the maturity or redemption of securitised debt instruments or till the same are delisted as per the procedure laid down by the BoardProvided that the provisions of this sub-regulation shall not restrict the right of the recognised stock exchange(s) to delist, suspend or remove the securities at any time and for any reason which the recognised stock exchange(s) considers proper in accordance with the applicable legal provisions. | This requires prior approval of the stock exchange to be obtained for making any material modification to the structure of SDIs. It also requires the originator to ensure timely payments of interest and for the credit enhancement to be available at all times. |
| Record Date | Reg 87 | (1) The listed entity shall fix a record date for payment of interest and payment of redemption or repayment amount or for such other purposes as specified by the recognised stock exchange(s).(2) The listed entity shall give notice in advance of atleast seven working days (excluding the date of intimation and the record date) to the recognised stock exchange(s) of the record date or of as many days as the Stock Exchange may agree to or require specifying the purpose of the record date. | This is for fixation of record date for payouts; useful for investor decisions for entry or exit. |
| Disclosure of Information having bearing on performance/ operation of listed entity and/ or price sensitive information | Part D of Schedule III | Several disclosure requirements for significant events and developments | See comments under reg 83 |
Other Resources: Buy our book on Securitised Debt Instruments here.
– Team Corplaw | corplaw@vinodkothari.com
Since 2021, the RPT framework for listed entities has been witnessing repetitive changes, and the current year 2025 has seen SEBI on a regulatory fast track in relation to RPTs. Be it the launch of RPT Analysis Portal, offering unprecedented visibility into RPT governance data, or the Industry Standards Note (‘ISN’), requiring seemingly a pile of information w.r.t RPTs, both in the month of February, 2025. Originally scheduled to be effective from FY 25, the applicability of ISN was later pushed on to July 1, 2025, and while on the verge of becoming effective, on June 26, 2025, SEBI notified Revised RPT Industry Standards, prescribing tiered but somewhat simplified disclosure formats effective September 1, 2025.
Even before the ISN could become effective, a 32-pager consultation paper proposing further amendments to RPT provisions has been rolled out by SEBI on August 4, 2025.
Based on the “Ease of Doing Business” theme, the Consultation Paper proposes amendments in the RPT framework, based on recommendations from the Advisory Committee on Listing Obligations and Disclosures (ACLOD). The proposals aim to address practical challenges faced by listed entities while maintaining robust governance standards.
Below we present the proposed amendments and our analysis of the same.
A scale-based threshold mechanism is proposed through a new Schedule XII to LODR Regulations, such that the RPT materiality threshold increases with the increase in the turnover of the company, though at a reduced rate, thus leading to an appropriate number of RPTs being categorized as material, thereby reducing the compliance burden of listed entities. The maximum upper ceiling of materiality has been kept at Rs. 5,000 crores, as against the existing absolute threshold of Rs. 1000 crores.
Proposed materiality thresholds:
| Annual Consolidated Turnover of listed entity (in Crores) | Proposed threshold (as a % of consolidated turnover) | Maximum upper ceiling (in Crores) |
| < Rs.20,000 | 10% | 2,000 |
| 20,001 – 40,000 | 2,000 Crs + 5% above Rs. 20,000 Crs | 3,000 |
| > 40,000 | 3,000 Crs + 2.5% above Rs. 40,000 Crs | 5,000 (as proposed) |
Back-testing the proposal scale on RPTs undertaken by top 100 NSE companies show a 60% reduction in material RPT approvals for FY 2023-24 and 2024-25 with total no. of such resolutions reducing from 235 and 293, to around 95 to 119. The 60% reduction may itself be seen as a bold admission that the present framework is causing too many proposals to go for shareholder approval.
The absolute threshold of Rs. 1000 crores, for determination of RPTs as material was brought pursuant to an amendment in November 2021, following the recommendations of the Working Group on RPTs. The proposal of WG was based on the data between the years 2015 to 2019, which showed that only around 70 to 91 resolutions were placed for material RPT approvals by the top 500 listed entities.
Turnover is an inadequate metric for determining the materiality of RPTs. Materiality should reflect the likely financial impact of a transaction, which may have little or no correlation with turnover. For instance, transactions involving investments, asset acquisitions or disposals, or borrowings pertain to the balance sheet rather than the revenue-generating side of operations. Even if an item pertains to revenues, there are businesses where gross profits ratios are low, and therefore, turnover will be high. Globally, jurisdictions like the UK adopt a more nuanced, consonance-based approach [Refer Annex 1 of UKLR 7] using different parameters viz. gross assets test, consideration test, and the gross capital test for different transaction types to ensure relevance and proportionality. Section 188 of the Companies Act, 2013 also adopts a similar multi-metric approach, applying turnover and net worth, depending on the nature of the transaction.
It is also critical to recognise the wide disparity in asset-turnover ratio across industries. A trading company might turn its assets over 20 times annually, while a manufacturing entity with a 90-day working capital cycle may show a turnover approximately four times its assets. On the other hand, entities in the financial sector, such as NBFCs and banks, generate turnover largely through interest income, which is barely 6 to 10 percent of the asset base. Therefore, applying a turnover-based threshold to such entities results in thresholds being disproportionately low when compared to the actual scale of transactions, thereby distorting the materiality assessment.
Given these sectoral variations and the diversity of transaction types, a flat turnover-based threshold oversimplifies the assessment and may result in both overregulation and underreporting. A more calibrated, transaction-specific materiality framework, drawing on consonance-based criteria as seen in Regulation 30 of the LODR Regulations, would offer a more balanced and effective approach. SEBI may consider moving towards such a harmonised model to ensure that materiality thresholds meaningfully reflect the substance of transactions, rather than relying on a single yardstick.
Pursuant to the amendments in 2021, RPTs exceeding a threshold of 10% of the standalone turnover of the subsidiary are considered as Significant RPTs, thus, requiring approval of the Audit Committee of the listed entity. The CP proposes the following modifications with respect to the thresholds of Significant RPTs of Subsidiaries:
The exemption for RPTs up to Rs. 1 crore in absolute terms might provide some relief for the holding entities, particularly, entities having various small subsidiaries, which, on a standalone basis, may not be material for the listed entity at all – however, the RPTs being significant at the subsidiary’s level still required approval of the parent’s audit committee. However, still the exemption threshold may be further enhanced to a higher limit, as a de minimis exemption of Rs. 1 crore entails the subsidiary having a turnover of mere Rs. 10 crores, which, from the perspective of a listed entity is a not a very practically beneficial scenario.
For newly incorporated companies not having a financial track record, linking the significant RPT threshold with net worth brings additional compliance burden in the form of certification requirements from PCA. Net worth alternative introduces valuation and certification burdens for newly incorporated entities, in which case It may be considerable to extend a blanket first year exemption of upto Rs. 5 crore, to balance ease of doing business for newly incorporated subsidiaries, the very decision of which would be stemming from the management of the parent listed entity. In fact, insisting on the net worth certificate itself seems unnecessary, as the net worth is mostly based on paid up capital, which does not warrant certification.
First of all, a statement of fact. The number of related parties of listed entities went for a significant explosion in November, 2021, where the definition of RP of a listed entity included RPs of subsidiaries. For any diversified group, there are typically several subsidiaries, each of them with their own independent boards.
While the proposals pertain to significant RPTs of subsidiaries, the most crucial component of the RPT framework lies in identification of RPs, which, under the current framework, covers RPs of subsidiaries as well. These RPs may be, many a times, companies in which the directors of the subsidiaries are holding mere directorships, often, an independent directorship. There is absolutely no scope of conflict of interests in dealing with companies where a person is interested, solely on account of his directorship where there is no direct or indirect shareholding or ownership interest. Such a situation has an explicit carve out under the Ind AS 24 as well, where an entity does not become a RP by the mere reason of having a common director or KMP [Para 11(a) of Ind AS 24]. While the Companies Act treats a company as an RP based on common directorship (in case of a private company), however, the extension of such definition to RPs of subsidiaries is pursuant to the provisions of SEBI LODR and hence, appropriate exclusions may be specified for under LODR.
The Industry Standards Note on RPTs, effective from 1st September, 2025 provides an exemption from disclosures as per ISN for RPTs aggregating to Rs. 1 crore in a FY. The proposal seeks to provide further relief from the ISN, by introducing a new slab for small-value RPTs aggregating to lower of:
In such cases, the disclosures are proposed to be given in the Annexure-2 of the Consultation Paper. The disclosure as per the Annexure is in line with the minimum information as is currently required to be placed by the listed entity before its Audit Committee in terms of SEBI Circular dated 22nd November, 2021 (currently subsumed in LODR Master Circular dated November 11, 2024). In the event of the same becoming effective, disclosures would be required in the following manner as per LODR:
| Value of transaction | Disclosure Requirements | Applicability of ISN |
| < Rs. 1 crore | Reg 23(3) of SEBI LODR | NA – exempt as per ISN |
| > Rs 1 crore, but less than 1% of consolidated turnover of listed entity or Rs. 10 crores, whichever is lower (‘Moderate Value RPTs’) | Annexure-2 of CP (Paragraph 4 under Part A of Section III-B of SEBI Master Circular dated November 11, 2024) | Proposed to be exempt from ISN |
| Other than Moderate Value RPTs but less than Material RPTs (specified transactions) | Part A and B of ISN | Yes |
| Material RPTs (specified transactions are material) | Part A, B and C of ISN | Yes |
| Other than Moderate Value RPTs but less than Material RPTs (other than specified transactions) | Part A of ISN | Yes |
The proposal would result in creation of multiple reference points with respect to disclosure requirements. As per the existing regulatory requirements, the disclosure requirements before the Audit Committee comes from the following sources:
The proposal leads to an additional classification of RPTs into moderate value RPTs where limited disclosures in terms of the draft Circular will be applicable. While the introduction of differentiated disclosure thresholds aims to rationalise compliance, care must be taken to ensure that the disclosure framework does not become overly template-driven. RPTs, by nature, require contextual judgment, and a uniform disclosure format may not always capture the nuances of each case. It is therefore important that the regulatory design continues to place trust in the informed discretion of the Audit Committee, allowing it the flexibility to seek additional information where necessary, beyond the prescribed formats.
The existing provisions [Para (C)11 of Section III-B of LODR Master Circular] permit the validity of the omnibus approval by shareholders for material RPTs as:
A clarification is proposed to be incorporated that the AGM to AGM approval will be valid for a period of not more than 15 months, in alignment with the maximum timeline for calling AGM as per section 96 of the Companies Act.
Further, the provisions, currently a part of the LODR Master Circular, are proposed to be embedded as a part of Reg 23(4) of LODR.
Proviso (e) to Regulation 2(1)(zc) of the SEBI LODR Regulations exempts transactions involving retail purchases by employees from being classified as Related Party Transactions (RPTs), even though employees are not technically classified as related parties. Conversely, it includes transactions involving the relatives of directors and Key Managerial Personnel (KMPs) within its ambit. Additionally, Regulation 23(5)(b) provides an exemption from audit committee and shareholder approvals for transactions between a holding company and its wholly owned subsidiary. However, the term “holding company” used in this context has remained undefined, leaving ambiguity as to whether it refers only to a listed holding company or includes unlisted ones as well.
The Consultation Paper proposes two key clarifications:
Under the existing framework, retail purchases made on the same terms as applicable to all employees are exempt when undertaken by employees, but not when made by relatives of directors or KMPs. This has led to an inconsistent treatment, where similarly situated individuals receive different regulatory treatment solely on the basis of their relationship with the company. The proposed language attempts to streamline this by including such relatives within the exemption, but it introduces its own drafting concern.
SEBI’s August 2025 proposals are largely aimed at relaxation, though in some cases, the ability to think beyond the existing track of the law seems missing. With the new leadership at SEBI meant to rationalise regulations, it was quite an appropriate occasion to do so. However, at many places, the August 2025 proposals are simply making tinkering changes in 2021 amendments and fine-tuning the June 2025 ISN. In sum, SEBI’s iterative approach to RPT governance demonstrates commendable responsiveness but calls for a holistic RPT policy road-map, harmonizing LODR regulations, circulars, and guidelines. Only a forward-looking, principles-based framework, will deliver the twin objectives of ease of doing business and investor protection in the long run.
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– Payal Agarwal, Partner | payal@vinodkothari.com
Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are private investment vehicles registered with and regulated by SEBI. Private investment vehicles, as is understood, are investment vehicles that pool investments from investors on a private basis, and make investments in investee entities based on the investment objectives disclosed to the investors. The returns from such investments, net of the expenses incurred by the vehicle, is distributed back to the investors. A typical AIF structure would look like:

The general obligations of AIFs are provided in the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012 read with the circulars issued from time to time. In addition to that, the Standard Setting Forum for AIFs (SFA) formulates implementation standards for various compliance requirements, as required by SEBI from time to time.
As may be understood, the AIF takes funds from its investors and makes investments in the investees. As between the sponsor/ manager of the Fund and the investors, there is a fiduciary relationship – since the investment decisions taken by the fund manager is on behalf of the investors, and in accordance with the investment objectives disclosed to the investors. Investor protection and transparency and proper due diligence of the investees become crucial in the context of an AIF. As compared to a traditional company, the AIFs are intermediaries between the investors and investees. This article discusses the various compliance requirements as applicable to AIFs.

The responsibilities of the Investment Committee may be waived by the investors (other than the Manager, Sponsor, and employees/ directors of Manager and AIF), if they have a commitment of at least Rs. 70 crores (USD 10 billion or other equivalent currency), by providing an undertaking to such effect, in the format as provided under Annexure 11 of the AIF Master Circular, including a confirmation that they have the independent ability and mechanism to carry out due diligence of the investments.
The responsibilities of the Manager are complied through the Key Management Personnel of such Manager.
The Compliance Officer is responsible to report any non-compliance observed by him within 7 days from the date of observing such non-compliance.
The various roles and responsibilities at the different levels of the governance structure is discussed below.
The Code of Conduct, as prescribed under the AIF Regulations, puts forth various requirements applicable to the AIFs and other relevant entities. The Code of Conduct is applicable to various responsibility centers charged with the governance requirements in an AIF. The requirements are given in the Fourth Schedule to the AIF Regulations read with Para 13.3. of the AIF Master Circular.
The applicability to various stakeholders along with the requirements are given in the table below:
| Person covered by the CoC | Requirements to be adhered to under the CoC |
| AIF |
|
|
|
|
|
The AIFs, being institutional investors, it is mandatory for AIFs to comply with the Stewardship Code in terms of Para 13.4 of the AIF Master Circular. This is applicable in respect of investments in listed equity instruments. Annexure 10 of the Master Circular specifies the broad principles of stewardship and provides guidance for its implementation. Further, the AIFs are required to report the status of implementation of the principles atleast on an annual basis (periodicity may differ for different principles), through the website of the AIFs. Such report may also be sent as a part of annual intimation to its clients/ beneficiaries. An article on the stewardship responsibilities of institutional investors may be read here.
In order to ensure that the decisions of the AIF are taken in compliance with all applicable laws and regulations, PPM, investor agreements and other fund documents, detailed policies and procedures are required to be kept in place in terms of Reg 20(3). The policies are jointly approved by:
The Manager is required to ensure that the decisions taken by the AIF are in compliance with such policies and procedures.
Further, the policies should be reviewed periodically, on a regular basis and whenever required as a result of business developments, to ensure their continued appropriateness.
The AIF is required to file Private Placement Memorandum (PPM) with SEBI through a Merchant Banker for the launch of Schemes. The format of PPM is specified under Annexure 1 read with the requirements specified under various other circulars from time to time. In order to ensure that the activities of the AIF are in compliance with the terms of PPM, annual audit of the terms of PPM is required to be done. In this regard, the following needs to be noted:
Reg 20(14) of the AIF Regulations require the books of account to be audited by a qualified auditor annually.
Reg 23 read with Chapter 22 of the AIF Master Circular specifies the requirements with respect to the valuation of the investments of AIF. The valuation is required to be done by an independent valuer, on a half-yearly basis (may be made an annual requirement subject to consent of 75% of investors in value).
Eligibility criteria have been specified for acting as an independent valuer:
The Manager shall specifically inform the investors, the reasons/ factors for deviation in valuation, in case the deviation is more than:
In case of Cat III AIFs, the listed and unlisted debt securities are required to be valued by an independent valuer, and the NAV is required to be reported on a quarterly basis for close ended funds, and monthly basis for open ended funds.
Resolution of investor complaints is a role of the Manager of AIF [Reg 24 of AIF Regulations]. Reg 24A requires the Manager to redress investor grievances in a prompt manner, but within a maximum of 21 days from receipt of grievances. The AIF is required to be registered on the SCORES portal for receipt of investor grievances. Further, in terms of Reg 25, the dispute resolution mechanism provided by SEBI (SMARTODR) is applicable to AIFs as well. Refer details under Master Circular for Online Resolution of Disputes in the Indian Securities Market dated 28th December, 2023.
Further, in terms of Para 17.4 of the AIF Master Circular, the AIFs are required to maintain data on investor complaints received against the AIF/ its Schemes on a quarterly basis within 7 days from the end of the quarter, in addition to the disclosure in the PPM. The data includes the following:
| S. No. | Investor Complaints received from | Pending as at the end of the last quarter | Received | Resolved | Total Pending at the end of the quarter | Pending complaints > 3months | Average Resolution time ^ (in days ) |
| 1 | Directly from Investors | ||||||
| 2 | SEBI (SCORES) | ||||||
| 3 | Other Sources |
The AIFs act in a fiduciary capacity towards the investors, and manage the funds of the investors invested in the AIF. Thus, the decisions of AIF are required to be taken in the interests of the investors. Some matters require approval of the investors of a specified majority, prior to undertaking such activity:
| Regulatory reference | Matter requiring approval | Requisite majority in terms of value of investment |
| Reg 9(2) | Material alteration to fund strategy | 2/3rd of unitholders |
| Reg 13(5) | Extension of tenure of close-ended funds (upto 2 years) | 2/3rd of unitholders |
| Reg 15(1)(e) | Investment in associates or units of AIFs managed/ sponsored by its Manager, Sponsor or associates of its Manager or Sponsor | 75% of investors |
| Reg 15(1)(ea) | Purchase or sale of investments from/ to: Associates Schemes of AIF managed or sponsored by its Manager, Sponsor or associates of its Manager or Sponsoran investor who has committed to invest at least fifty percent of the corpus of the scheme of AIF | 75% of investors, excluding investor covered under (c) where purchase/ sale is from such investor |
| Reg 20(10) | Appointment of external members (other than ex-officio members) in Investment Committee other than as disclosed in the fund documents | 75% of investors |
| Reg 23(2) | Reducing frequency of valuation of investments from six months to 1 year | 75% of investors |
| Reg 29(9) | In-specie distribution of investments of AIF due to lack of liquidity or enter into liquidation period | 75% of investors |
The funds of the investors invested in the AIF are managed by the Manager and Sponsor in a fiduciary capacity. In order to ensure transparency, various disclosure requirements apply in terms of Reg 22 of the AIF Regulations – either on a periodic basis or upon the happening of certain events.
The periodic disclosures include:
Further, in terms of clause (g) of Reg 22, the following information is required to be disclosed within 180 days from the year end (60 days from the end of each quarter for Cat III AIF):
Any changes in terms of PPM or other fund documents are required to be intimated to the investors on a consolidated basis within 1 month from the end of each financial year [Para 2.5.3. of AIF Master Circular]
These events are required to be disclosed ‘as and when occurred’:
Reg 28 provides power to SEBI to seek such information from the AIFs, as may be required, from time to time. In addition to such powers, there are various specific reporting requirements that are applicable on AIFs under various applicable provisions. These include:
| Regulatory reference | Matters requiring reporting to SEBI | Timelines |
| Reg 20(12) | Any material change from the information provided at the time of application | Promptly |
| Reg 26 | Information for systemic risk purposes (including the identification, analysis and mitigation of systemic risks) | when so required by SEBI |
| Para 2.5.2 | Any changes in the terms of PPM and other fund documents, along with DD certificate from Merchant Banker | within 1 month from the end of FY |
| Para 15.1 | Reporting on investment activities of AIF in the format specified by SFA | 15 calendar days from end of each quarter |
| Para 15.2 | Any violations reported in the Compliance Test Report (refer detailed discussion below) | As soon as possible |
| Reg 20(11) r/w Para 15.4. | Investments of AIF that are in custody of the custodian | Quarterly |
An AIF, in its capacity of a SEBI-registered intermediary, is required to comply with the SEBI (Intermediaries) Regulations, 2008 read with the circulars issued thereunder. These include, for instance, compliance with the circulars/guidelines as may be issued by SEBI with respect to KYC requirements, Anti-Money Laundering and Outsourcing of activities [Para 13.5 of AIF Master Circular].
The guidelines with respect to anti-money laundering and KYC requirements are contained in a Master Circular dated 6th June, 2024 on the subject. Our various resources on KYC and anti-money laundering can be accessed here.
The manager of AIF is required to report the compliances with various applicable provisions of the AIF Regulations read with the circulars made thereunder, on an annual basis. CTR is submitted within 30 days from the end of the financial year, to the sponsor and trustee (in case AIF is set up as a trust). The trustee/ sponsor provides their comments on the CTR to the manager within 30 days from the receipt of CTR, based on which the manager shall make necessary changes and provide a response within the next 15 days.
A significant aspect of the CTR is that any violation observed by the trustee/ sponsor is required to be intimated to SEBI, as soon as possible. This requirement is in addition to the obligation of the Compliance Officer to report a non-compliance, within 7 days of becoming aware of the same. The format of CTR is provided in Annexure 12 of the AIF Master Circular.
SEBI specifies various compliances applicable to the AIFs from time to time. The compliances as applicable to the AIFs for the first time during FY 25-26 has been dealt with in our article Regulatory landscape for AIFs: what’s new? Further, there are certain requirements applicable on special categories of AIFs, viz., angel funds, Special Situation Funds, Social Venture Funds etc. Further, there are various prudential requirements applicable to receipt of funds from investors and making of investments by the AIFs.
See our other resources on AIFs:
[1] Associate means:
[2] The conditions include:
(a) Minimum net worth of the Sponsor or Manager of at least twenty thousand crore rupees at all points of time;
(b) fifty per cent or more of the directors of the Custodian do not represent the interest of the Sponsor or Manager or their associates;
(c) the Custodian and the Sponsor or Manager of AIF are not subsidiaries of each other;
(d) the custodian and the Sponsor or Manager of AIF do not have common directors; and
(e) the Custodian and the Manager of AIF sign an undertaking that they shall act independently of each other in their dealings of the schemes of AIF.
Team Corplaw | corplaw@vinodkothari.com
| Approval of AC | Approval of shareholders (in case of material RPTs) | Date of execution of RPTs | Applicability of RPT ISN |
| Before Effective Date | Before Effective Date | After Effective Date | Not Applicable |
| Before Effective Date | After Effective Date | After Effective Date | Not Applicable |
| After Effective Date | After Effective Date | After Effective Date | Applicable |
Our analysis of the detailed disclosure requirements on relevant line-items are being collated in the form of FAQs. Keep checking our website for more.
SEBI’s explanation remains ambiguous on share options granted to start-up promoters
– Payal Agarwal, Partner & Sakshi Patil, Executive
Starting a company often means wearing multiple hats. In these early stages, many founders structure their compensation through Employee Stock Option Plans (“ESOPs”) rather than traditional salaries. This arrangement makes perfect sense when resources are tight and every rupee earned needs to be reinvested into growth of the company. ESOPs align founders’ interests with the company’s long term success.
But here’s when things get complicated: the companies grow and prepare to go ‘public’; the founders find themselves classified as “promoters” under SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018 (“ICDR Regulations”). With more risks than rewards, they find themselves in a position, where their earlier ESOP grants, reflecting the growth of the company built by them, though perfectly valid during the grant, may now be taken away.
Recognising this unfair situation, at its meeting held on June 18, 2025, SEBI has approved an amendment providing regulatory relief for founders of companies who hold ESOPs and are subsequently classified as promoters at the time of an IPO. The amendment seeks to clarify the position of ESOPs and other share based benefits, granted to promoters and promoter group members prior to categorisation as such, and permit the exercise of such grants even after listing of the company.
While the amendments seek to enable founders in IPO-bound companies to avail of the share based benefits granted to them, the language of the explanation falls short of the intent. In this article, we discuss the need for the amendments in line with the existing scenario, how the amendments seek to meet the need and the gap that remains.
The proposal approved by SEBI in its recent BM is based on the proposal contained in its consultation paper dated March 20, 2025 to include an explanation under Regulation 9(6) of SBEB Regulations.
As per the Para 3.5.1 of the Consultation paper, SEBI had proposed to include an explanation may be inserted under regulation 9(6) of SBEB Regulations which would state:
Explanation 2: an employee, identified as a “promoter” or “promoter group” in the draft offer document filed by a company in relation to an initial public offering, who was granted options, SARs or other benefits under any scheme prior to being identified as a “promoter” or “promoter group”, as the case may be, shall be eligible to continue to hold, exercise or avail any such option, SAR or benefit, in accordance with its terms and granted, prior to one year from the date when the Company (i.e. its’ Board) decides to undertake Initial Public Offering and, in compliance with these Regulations.
The proposed explanation provides a clarification with respect to holding or exercise of share options or other similar benefits granted to an employee, identified as promoter/ promoter group in the DRHP, subject to the following conditions:
These conditions have been discussed in detail in the later part of this article. Before that, it is necessary to understand the need for the amendment.
An explanation to Rule 12(1) of the Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Rules, 2014 excludes a promoter or a person belonging to the promoter group from the definition of ‘employee’, in the context of eligibility for grant of ESOPs.
However, pursuant to Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Third Amendment Rules, 2016 Dated July 19, 2016, a proviso has been added to the aforesaid explanation that provides an exemption for start-up companies up to ten years from the date of its incorporation or registration. Therefore, in case of a start-up, a promoter or member of promoter group may also be issued ESOPs upto 10 years from the date of its incorporation.
Similar prohibition applies to a listed entity, as per Reg 2(1)(i) of SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits and Sweat Equity) Regulations, 2021, pursuant to which, an employee does not include a promoter or a person belonging to promoter group. There is no exemption for a start-up company under the said Regulations.
The term ‘promoter’ is defined in an almost similar fashion in both Companies Act, 2013 (“ and ICDR Regulations. As per the definition, there are three limbs to the definition of promoter, being:
Further, the term ‘promoter group’, is not a defined term under the Companies Act, 2013 and hence, may be open to interpretation.
On the question of whether or not every founder may be considered as promoters, what needs to be understood is that while the founder may be the one who initiates the idea of the start-up, it may so happen that subsequent to new investors coming in, the founder may gradually lose his powers to control the affairs of the company. The board becomes independent, the private equity investors get to have a call in various matters, and the powers get diluted, pursuant to which the founder may not be recognised as a promoter after all.
However, the stock exchanges apply various additional criteria for considering a person as ‘promoter’, some of which may categorise a Founder as promoter, regardless of whether the same is holding ‘control’ in the company or not.
For instance, as per news reports[1], the guidance issued by NSE for promoter categorisation in case of an IPO-bound company, requires founders to be categorised as promoters if:
Therefore, even when a founder may not be holding ‘control’ in a company, he may be categorised as a promoter by holding options if they are crossing the 10% threshold.
The SBEB Regulations, as discussed above, do not allow promoters to hold ESOPs or other share based benefits in a listed entity. Although applicable to listed entities, the compliance is required to be ensured at the stage of filing of DRHP, and hence, IPO-bound companies are also covered.
While the Regulations exclude the promoters from the definition of an employee eligible for the receipt of ESOPs, it does not clarify the treatment of options that are already granted to promoters, prior to such classification. This led to a confusion in case of options issued to Founders-turned-Promoters, putting the fate of such granted options in a grey area.
In case a view is taken that such options need to be liquidated, and the benefits thus accruing, has to be foregone, at the time of identification as a promoter, the same would not be justified. It is not on their own wish to become a promoter, and since the options are part of the remuneration of the Founders as employees, granting them an immunity for such options is needed.
The purpose of the amendments is to primarily cover the ‘founders’ of start-up companies, where it would be typical to give share based options to incentivise the founders and as a remuneration against the services offered by such employees.
As discussed above, there may be situations where a person, though a founder of the company, was not categorised as promoter under CA, 2013. However, pursuant to the categorisation conditions followed by the SEs, during filing of DRHP, may get covered as a ‘promoter’ or ‘promoter group member’.
The explanation refers to grant of share based benefits, prior to being identified as a “promoter” or “promoter group”, and thus, refers to such employees/ founders who were not categorised as promoter/ promoter group prior to grant of options.
However, consider the case of a founder of a start-up who was identified as a promoter since inception, but was granted ESOPs pursuant to the exemption available to start-ups under CA, 2013. If the company later decides to go for listing, it remains unclear whether such ESOPs would remain valid under this proposed explanation. This is because, technically, the first condition requiring that the ESOP grant be made before the individual was identified as a promoter, is not satisfied in such cases.
This condition risks contradicting the very objective of the amendment, which is to safeguard pre-IPO entitlements granted to founders while ensuring regulatory safeguards for promoters are maintained at the time of listing. The start-up related exemption, as available to the promoters under CA, 2013 is with the objective of permitting the founders, whether promoter or otherwise, to be benefitted from the growth of the company and be entitled to share based benefits.
The condition requires the options or other benefits to have been granted at least 1 year prior to the board’s decision of undertaking an IPO. The clause provides a cooling off period between the grant of options and the company’s IPO decision, so as to prevent situations where companies might quickly issue ESOPs or other share based benefits to promoters just before going public, thus taking benefit in ingenuine cases.
The one year requirement is a reasonable safeguard, as it helps protect the interest of public shareholders and ensure that such grants are made in advance to genuine employees only as a reward for their contribution to the company and not as an opportunistic benefit tied to the IPO.
While SEBI’s proposal to introduce an explanation under Regulation 9(6) of the SBEB Regulations is a well-intended step towards addressing the gaps affecting founders of start-ups, its current framing leaves room for ambiguity.
The final wording of the amendment, once notified, will be pivotal in determining whether this balance between protecting founders’ rights and maintaining necessary safeguards for promoters. It is hoped that SEBI will clearly address this issue in the final version, so that the real purpose of the amendment is not lost in technical wording.
[1] https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/ipo/executive-startup-founders-holding-more-than-10-stake-may-be-categorised-as-promoters-12508551.html
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