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Demystifying Promoter & Promoter Group: A Compilation of FAQs

Pammy Jaiswal, Partner and Ankit Singh Mehar, Assistant Manager | Corplaw@vinodkothari.com

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Exclusivity Club: Light-touch regulations for AIFs with accredited investors

– SEBI notifies light-touch regulations for AIFs in which only Accredited Investors are investors and flexibilities for Large Value Funds (LVFs)

– Payal Agarwal, Partner | corplaw@vinodkothari.com

This version: 20th November, 2025

Since its introduction in 2021, the concept of Accredited Investors (AIs) has been through some changes. A Consultation Paper was published on 17th June, 2025 to provide for certain flexibilities in the accreditation framework. Another Consultation Paper dated 8th August 2025 (‘AI CP’) proposed to bring light-touch regulations for AIF schemes seeking investments from only AIs, including extension of various exemptions to such schemes, that are currently available to Large Value Funds (LVFs).

Further, vide another Consultation Paper (‘LVF CP’), some relaxations were also proposed to be extended to Large Value Funds (LVFs) for AIs. Note that the LVFs are available only for AIs, and hence, the Amendment Regulations define the AIs-only schemes to include LVF.

The SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) (Third Amendment) Regulations, 2025 has been notified on 18th November, 2025, thus introducing the concept of AI-only schemes in the regulatory framework. Note that, vide the 2nd Amendment Regulations, the angel funds have also been exclusively restricted to Accredited Investors only. See an article on the Angel Funds 2.0: Navigating the New Regulatory Landscape.

Accredited Investors – who are they?

An AI is considered as an investor having professional expertise and experience of making riskier investments. Reg 2(1)(ab) of AIF Regulations defines an accredited investor as any person who is granted a certificate of accreditation by an accreditation agency, and specifies eligibility criteria. The eligibility criteria is as follows:

Further, certain categories of investors are deemed to be AIs, that is, certificate of accreditation is not required, such as, Central and State Governments, developmental agencies set up under the aegis of the Central Government or the State Governments, sovereign wealth funds and multilateral agencies, funds set up by the Government, Category I foreign portfolio investors, qualified institutional buyers, etc.

‘Accreditation’ as a measure of risk sophistication

AIFs are investment vehicles pooling funds of sophisticated investors, and not for soliciting money from retail investors. The measure of sophistication, as specified in the AIF Regulations currently, is in the form of the ‘minimum commitment threshold’. Reg 10(c) of the Regulations require a minimum investment of Rs. 1 crore, except in case of investors who are employees or directors of the AIF or of the Manager.

There are certain shortcomings of considering the minimum commitment threshold as the metric of risk sophistication of an investor, such as:

  • May not necessarily lead to an actual draw-down, thus exposing to the risk of onboarding investors with inflated commitments. As per the data available on SEBI’s website, out of the total commitment of Rs. 13 lac crores for the quarter ended 31st March 2024, only about Rs. 5 lac crores worth of funds were actually drawn down. Similarly, for the quarter ended 31st March 2025, the value of commitment vis-a-vis funds raised
  • Does not consider the investor’s financial health (income, net worth etc), hence, a potential risk of the investor putting majority of its wealth in AIFs, a riskier investment class.

The concept of AIs, as proposed in February 2021, was to introduce a  class  of investors  who have  an understanding of various  financial products and the risks and returns associated with them and therefore, are able to take informed  decisions  regarding their investments. Accreditation of investors is a way of ensuring that investors are capable of assessing risk responsibly.

The June 2025 CP indicated that it is being examined to move AIFs gradually in an exclusively for AIs approach, starting with investments in angel funds and in framework for co-investing in unlisted securities of investee companies of AIFs. Accordingly, the present CP has proposed a gradual and consultative transition from ‘minimum commitment threshold’ to ‘accreditation status’ as a metric of risk sophistication of an investor.

Flexibility for AIs-only schemes vis-a-vis other AIFs

The accreditation status is to  be ensured at the time of onboarding of investors only. Therefore, if an investor subsequently loses the status of AI in interim, the same shall still be considered as an AI for the AI only scheme, once on-boarded. The following relaxations have been extended to AIs-only schemes, in order to provide for a light-touch regulatory framework, from investor protection viewpoint, considering that the AIs have the necessary knowledge and means to understand the features including risks involved in such investment products:

TopicRegulatory requirement  for other AIFsOur Comments
Differential rights of investors [reg 20(22)]Shall be pari-passu, differential rights may be offered to select investors, without affecting the interest of other investors of the scheme in compliance with SEBI Circular dated 13th Dec, 2024 r/w Implementation StandardsThis facilitates differential rights to different classes of investors within a scheme.
Extension of tenure of close-ended funds [reg 13(5)]up to two years subject to approval of two-thirds of the unit holders by value of their investment in AIFThis facilitates a longer tenure extension to an existing close-ended scheme, if suited to investors.

However, it is further clarified that the maximum extension permissible to such AI only schemes, inclusive of any tenure extension prior to such conversion, shall be 5 years. 
Certification criteria for key investment team of Manager [reg 4(g)(i)]Atleast one key personnel with relevant NISM certificationThe investors, being accredited, the reliance on key investment team of the Manager is comparatively low.

Further, in case of AIs-only Funds, the responsibilities of Trustee as specified in Reg 20 r/w the Fourth Schedule shall be fulfilled by the Manager itself. This is based on the premise that, the investors, being accredited, the reliance on Trustee for investor protection is comparatively low.

Large Value Funds: a sub-category of AIs only scheme

The concept of LVF was also introduced in 2021, along with the concept of AIs. An LVF, in fact, is an AIs only fund, with a minimum investment threshold. Reg 2(1)(pa) of the AIF Regulations defines LVF as:

“large value fund for accredited investors” means an Alternative Investment Fund or scheme of an Alternative Investment Fund in which each investor (other than the Manager, Sponsor, employees or directors of the Alternative Investment Fund or employees or directors of the Manager) is an accredited investor and invests not less than seventy crore rupees.

Since an LVF is included within the meaning of an AIs-only scheme, all exemptions as available to an AIs only scheme, are naturally available with an LVF, although the converse is not true.

Additional Exemptions available to LVFs (other than as available to AIs only scheme)

In addition to the relaxations extended to an AIs only scheme, there are additional exemptions available to an LVF. These are:

Regulatory referenceTopicExemption for LVF
Reg 12(2)Filing of placement memorandum through merchant bankerNot applicable
Reg 12(3)Comments of SEBI on PPM through merchant bankerNot applicable, only filing with SEBI required
Reg 15(1)(c)Investment concentration for Cat I and Cat II AIFs – cannot invest more than 25% of investable funds in an investee company, directly or through units of other AIFsMay invest upto 50% of investable funds in an investee company, directly or through units of other AIFs
Reg 15(1)(d)Investment concentration for Cat III AIFs – cannot invest more than 10% of investable funds in an investee company, directly or through units of other AIFsMay invest upto 25% of investable funds in an investee company, directly or through units of other AIFs

Reduction in minimum investment size for LVFs

The minimum investment threshold for investors in LVF has been reduced from Rs. 70 crores to Rs. 25 crores, based on the recommendations of SEBI’s Alternative Investment Policy Advisory Committee (AIPAC). The rationale is to lower entry barriers to facilitate improved fund raising, without compromising on the level of investor sophistication. The reduction of investment thresholds would also facilitate investments by regulated entities having a strict exposure limit, such as insurance companies.

Exemptions from requiring specific waivers for certain provisions 

The extant regulations permitted that the responsibilities of the Investment Committee may be waived by the investors (other than the Manager, Sponsor, and employees/ directors of Manager and AIF), if they have a commitment of at least Rs. 70 crores (USD 10 billion or other equivalent currency), by providing an undertaking to such effect, in the format as provided under Annexure 11 of the AIF Master Circular, including a confirmation that they have the independent ability and mechanism to carry out due diligence of the investments.

The requirement of specific waiver has been omitted for LVFs considering that AIs are already required to provide an undertaking for the purpose of availing benefits of ‘accreditation’. The undertaking, as per the format given in Annexure 8 of the AIF Master Circular states the following:

(i) The prospective investor ‘consents’ to avail benefits under the AI framework.

(ii) The prospective investor has the necessary knowledge and means to understand the features of the investment Product/service eligible for AIs, including the risks associated with the investment.

(iii) The prospective investor is aware that investments by AIs may not be subject to the same regulatory oversight as applicable to investment by other investors.

(iv) The prospective investor has the ability to bear the financial risks associated with the investment.

Similarly, LVFs have been exempt from following the standard PPM template without the requirement of obtaining specific waiver from investors.

Migration of existing eligible AIFs

One of the proposals of the LVF CP is to permit eligible AIFs, not formed as an LVF, to convert themselves into an LVF and avail the benefits available to LVF schemes. The conversion shall be subject to obtaining positive consent from all the investors. Following the same, the modalities for such migration has been specified by SEBI vide circular dated 8th December, 2025

Pursuant to such migration, the AIF manager shall ensure that:

  • Name of the converted scheme contains ‘AI only fund’ or ‘LVF’ as the case may be
  • Such conversion and change in name to be reported to SEBI within 15 days through dedicated email ID
  • Such change in name to be reported to depositories within 15 days of conversion

Limit on maximum number of investors

Reg 10(f) puts a cap on the maximum number of investors in a scheme. Pursuant to the Amendment Regulations, the cap of 1000 investors shall not include the AIs.

In practice, the number of investors in an AIF is much lower than 1000, and hence, the amendment may not have much of a practical relevance. 

Conclusion

The amendments are a step towards providing a lighter regulatory regime for AIFs, meant for sophisticated investors, capable of making well-informed decisions. The move is expected to witness more schemes focussed on AIs only, and thus, bring an AIs only regime for AIFs. In order to differentiate an AIs only scheme or an LVF from other AIF schemes, it is mandatory for the newly launched schemes henceforth to have the words ‘AI only fund’ or ‘LVF’ as the case maybe.

Our resources on the topic-

  1. Understanding the Governance & Compliance Framework for AIFs
  2. Round-Tripping Reined: RBI Rolls Out Relaxed Rules for Investments in AIF
  3. Regulatory landscape for AIFs: what’s new?
  4. FAQs on Specific Due Diligence of investors & investments of AIFs
  5. Angel Funds 2.0: Navigating the New Regulatory Landscape.

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Repetitive Overhaul: RPT regime to get softer

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Listed and Restricted? Additional Compliances and Prohibitions for listing of SDIs by RBI regulated Originators

– Payal Agarwal & Dayita Kanodia (finserv@vinodkothari.com)

Securitisation Transactions in India are primarily governed by:

  1. The RBI Securitisation of Standard Assets Directions, 2021 (in case the originator is regulated by RBI)
  2. SEBI (Issue and Listing of Securitised Debt Instruments and Security Receipts) Regulations, 2008, which become applicable if the securitisation notes are listed. 

Consequently, an RBI regulated originator will be required to adhere to both the SSA Directions as well as the SDI Framework in case it intends to go for listing of the securisation notes. 

Here, we have discussed the additional prohinitions and compliance requirements for RBI regulated originators which becomes applicable in case of listing of securitisation notes. 

Additional Prohibitions under the SEBI SDI Framework for RBI Regulated Originators
Para RefRelevant Regulatory Provision Our Comments
Single Asset Securitisation not permitted19A(a)“No obligor shall have more than twenty-five percent in asset pool at the time of issuance.”An RBI regulated originator will not be able to undertake single asset securitisation if it intends to list the securitisation notes, though the same is permitted under the RBI regulations (proviso to para 5(s) of the SSA Directions).
Comments: Single asset securitisation is not a very common practice, but this is explicitly permitted under RBI regulations
All assets to be homogenous19A(b)“Assets comprising the securitisation pool shall be homogeneous.”The RBI SSA Directions only require the assets to be homogeneous in case of simple, transparent, and comparable securitisation transactions (STC Transactions). STC transactions are currently not very common, and in any case, is an investor classification, not that of issuer.For non-STC cases, there is no such requirement. Therefore, originators will be required to ensure that the assets comprising the pool are homogeneous in case they intend to go for listing of the securitisation notes.
Comment: Homogeneity may be subjective
SPV can only be constituted in the form of a trust9(1)“The  special  purpose  distinct  entity  shall  be  constituted  in  the  form  of  a  trust  the constitutional  document  whereof  entitles  the  trustees  to  issue  securitised  debt  instruments.”The RBI SSA Directions (para 5(w)) allow SPVs to be constituted in the form of a company, trust or other entity. 
Comment: Not a very big pain, as SPVs in India are almost always in the trust form.
Originator and Trustee not be under the same group or control.10(3)“No  special  purpose  distinct  entity  shall  acquire  any  debt  or  receivables  from  any originator  which  is  part  of  the  same  group or  which  is under  the  same  control as  the trustee.”This requirement, although essential to maintain independence, is not a part of the RBI SSA Directions. Accordingly, the same will be required to be ensured. 
Additional Compliances applicable to RBI regulated Originators under the SEBI SDI Framework
Para RefRelevant Regulatory ProvisionOur Comments
Registration of Trustees under the  Securities  and Exchange Board of India(Debenture Trustees) Regulations, 19934(b)“(1)  On  and  from  the  commencement  of  these  regulations,  no  person  shall  make  a  public offer  of  securitised  debt  instruments  or  seek  listing  for  such  securitised  debt  instruments unless –XX(b)all  its  trustees  are  registered  with  the  Board  under 26[the  Securities  and Exchange Board of India(Debenture Trustees) Regulations, 1993];XX”Accordingly, the trustees will be required to comply with the SEBI Debenture Trustee regulations. 
Comment: This is a useful provision, and mostly, the SPV trustees  are registered debenture trustees. Hence, it is a useful regulatory requirement. 
Contents of the Instrument of TrustSchedule IVSchedule IV of the SEBI SDI Framework prescribes the minimum contents of the instrument of trust. The contents prescribed under the SDI Framework are more detailed as compared to the RBI SSA Directions, which only indicate the contents of the trust deed.
Comment: Useful regulation, serving the purpose of proper disclosures. Notably, disclosures are the domain of the securities regulator. 
Quarterly reports to the trustee about the performance of the underlying pool and auditor certificate10A(1) and (2)“(1)  The originator shall provide the periodic reports to the trustee regarding the performance of the underlying asset pool, at least on a quarterly basis. (2) The originator shall provide a certificate from its auditor (s) regarding the  disclosures  of underlying asset  pool  assigned  to  the  securitization  trust,  as  made  by  the  originator, on quarterly basis.”The RBI SSA Directions (para 114 and 115) require semi-annual disclosures to be made. Further, there is no requirement to provide an auditor’s certificate under the RBI Directions. 
Comment: Useful regulation, serving the purpose of investor information. These disclosures are typically part of the securities regulators’ domain. 
Minimum Ticket Size for subsequent transfers30A(2)(i)“The minimum ticket size for subsequent transfers of a securitised debt instrument shall be as follows:(i)for originators  which  are  not  regulated  by the Reserve  Bank  of  India,  the  minimum ticket size shall be rupees one crore.”In case of public offer of SDIs, the minimum ticket size is Rs. 1 Crore even for subsequent transfers of SDIs. This requirement is more stringent as compared to the RBI SSA Directions (para 28), which only requires the minimum ticket size of Rs. 1 Crore to be seen at the time of issuance. 
Comments: The requirement has only been introduced for the public offer of SDIs. Public issue of SDIs is howe,ver not a common practice currently. Accordingly, this may not seem to be a major concern for RBI regulated originators. 
Other miscellaneous provisions – offer period, allotment period, dematerialisation29, 31(1)Offer Period: No public offer of securitised debt instruments shall remain open for less than two working days and more than ten working days. Allotment Period:The securitised debt instruments shall be allotted to the investors within five days of closure of the offer.
Further, the securitises will need to be issued mandatorily in demat form. 
Comments: These requirements are applicable only in case of public offers. 
Facility to avail electronic bidding platformMaster Circular dated May 16, 2025 On issue and listing of Non-convertible Securities, Securitised Debt Instruments, Security Receipts, Municipal Debt Securities and Commercial Paper and on Review of provisions pertaining to Electronic Book Provider (EBP) platform to increase its efficacy and utilityThe facility of using EBP has been extended to SDIs too.
Comment: This is an optional facility, and as of now, very limited issuers have made use of this.
LODR Requirements – Chapter III
Disclosure by KMPs, directors, etcReg 55. The listed entity shall ensure that key managerial personnel, directors, promoters or any other person dealing with the listed entity, complies with responsibilities or obligations, if any, assigned to them under these regulations 51[:]52[Provided that the key managerial personnel, directors, promoter, promoter group or any other person dealing with the listed entity shall disclose to the listed entity all information that is relevant and necessary for the listed entity to ensure compliance with the applicable laws.]This  requires the concerned officers of the Listed Entity (in this case, the SPV] to make requisite disclosures for the purpose of complying with the law.
Comment: Does not seem to be practically relevant, as Originators’ KMPs mostly do not have interest in the SPV. However, where needed, it is a useful disclosure.
Compliance officer to be appointed.Reg 6, Chap III6. (1) A listed entity shall appoint a qualified company secretary as the compliance officer Other provisions of the regulationAn issuer of SDIs is required to appoint a Compliance Officer. 
Comments: The requirement may be  complied with at SPV level.
Share Transfer AgentReg 7(1)The listed entity shall appoint a share transfer agent or manage the share transfer facility in-house:Other requirements of the regulationThe requirement to appoint a share transfer agent is typically part of the securities regulators’ domain. 
Comment: Mostly not relevant as the securities are offered in demat form.
Information to intermediariesReg 8The listed entity, wherever applicable, shall co-operate with and submit correct and adequate information to the intermediaries registered with the Board such as credit rating agencies, registrar to an issue and share transfer agents, debenture trustees etc, within timelines and procedures specified under the Act, regulations and circulars issued there under:Provided that requirements of this regulation shall not be applicable to the units issued by mutual funds listed on a recognised stock exchange(s) for which the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996 shall be applicable.Requirement to share information with the information agencies.
Comment:  In case of listed SDIs, this is a part of the information eco system.
Policy for preservation of documentsReg 9The listed entity shall have a policy for preservation of documents, etc. Useful for preservation of documents.
Filing of reports, statements and other documentsReg 10(1) The listed entity shall file the reports, statements, documents, filings and any other information with the recognised stock exchange(s) on the electronic platform as specified by the Board or the recognised stock exchange(s).Other provisions of the regulationThis is a general filing requirement for filing of information on the stock exchanges.
Scheme of arrangement to not violate, affect or override the provisions of securities lawReg 11The listed entity shall ensure that any scheme of arrangement /amalgamation /merger /reconstruction /reduction of capital etc. to be presented to any Court or Tribunal does not in any way violate, override or limit the provisions of securities laws or requirements of the stock exchange(s):.Mostly not relevant for SDIs
Use of electronic mode of paymentsReg 12The listed entity shall use any of the electronic mode of payment facility approved by the Reserve Bank of India, in the manner specified in Schedule I, for the payment of the following:(a) dividends;(b) interest;(c) redemption or repayment amounts:Provides for mode of payments to investors. Not a cumbersome requirement as it refers to RBI-permitted payment systems to be used.
SCORESReg 13(1) 61[The listed entity shall redress investor grievances promptly but not later than twenty-one calendar days from the date of receipt of the grievance and in such manner as may be specified by the Board.]Other provisions of the RegulationThis relates to use of the SCORES mechanism for settling investor issues
Payment of Fees and chargesReg 14The listed entity shall pay all such fees or charges, as applicable, to the recognised stock exchange(s), in the manner specified by the Board or the recognised stock exchange(s).This mandates payment of listing fees. Usual provision for all listed securities
LODR Regulations – Chapter VIII
The entire Chapter is dedicated to listed SDI issuance.Reg 81Applicability(1) The provisions of this chapter shall apply to Special Purpose Distinct Entity issuing securitised debt instruments and trustees of Special Purpose Distinct Entity shall ensure compliance with each of the provisions of these regulations.(2) The expressions “asset pool”, “clean up call option”, “credit enhancement”, “debt or receivables”, “investor”, “liquidity provider”, “obligor”, “originator”, “regulated activity”, “scheme”, “securitization”, “securitized debt instrument”, “servicer”, “special purpose distinct entity”, “sponsor” and “trustee” shall have the same meaning as assigned to them under [Securities and Exchange Board of India (Issue and Listing of Securitised Debt Instruments and Security Receipts) Regulations, 2008]555;Specifies applicability of the Chapter and refers to meaning of relevant expressions 
Intimation and filings with stock exchange(s)Reg 82(1) The listed entity shall intimate the Stock exchange, of its intention to issue new securitized debt instruments either through a public issue or on private placement basis (if it proposes to list such privately placed debt securities on the Stock exchange) prior to issuing such securities.(2) The listed entity shall intimate to the stock exchange(s), at least two working days in advance, excluding the date of the intimation and date of the meeting, regarding the meeting of its board of trustees, at which the recommendation or declaration of issue of securitized debt instruments or any other matter affecting the rights or interests of holders of securitized debt instruments is proposed to be considered.(3) The listed entity shall submit such statements, reports or information including financial information pertaining to Schemes to stock exchange within seven days from the end of the month/ actual payment date, either by itself or through the servicer, on a monthly basis in the format as specified by the Board from time to time:Provided that where periodicity of the receivables is not monthly, reporting shall be made for the relevant periods.(4) The listed entity shall provide the stock exchange, either by itself or through the servicer, loan level information, without disclosing particulars of individual borrowers, in manner specified by stock exchange.This regulation is equivalent of reg 29 in case of listed equities, and provides for prior intimation to investors for certain critical actions on the part of issuers.
Disclosure of information having bearing on performance/operation of listed entity and/or price sensitive information83 read with Part D of Schedule III(1) The listed entity shall promptly inform the stock exchange(s) of all information having bearing on the on performance/operation of the listed entity and price sensitive information.(2) Without prejudice to the generality of sub-regulation(1), the listed entity shall make the disclosures specified in Part D of Schedule III.Explanation.- The expression ‘promptly inform’, shall imply that the stock exchange must be informed must as soon as practically possible and without any delay and that the information shall be given first to the stock exchange(s) before providing the same to any third party.This regulation is to ensure the regular flow of information from issuers to investors, to maintain information symmetry. This is typical for all listed securities – for example, Reg 30 in case of listed equities, and reg 51 in case of listed non convertible debt securities.
Credit Rating to be periodically reviewed and any revision to be notifiedReg 84(1) Every rating obtained by the listed entity with respect to securitised debt instruments shall be periodically reviewed, preferably once a year, by a credit rating agency registered by the Board.(2) Any revision in rating(s) shall be disseminated by the stock exchange(s).This Regulation requires a mandatory annual review of credit ratings on the SDIs by a SEBI-registered CRA, and intimation of any revision to the stock exchanges.
Information to InvestorsReg 85(1) The listed entity shall provide either by itself or through the servicer, loan level information without disclosing particulars of individual borrower to its investors.(2) The listed entity shall provide information regarding revision in rating as a result of credit rating done periodically in terms of regulation 84 above to its investors.(3) The information at sub-regulation (1) and (2) may be sent to investors in electronic form/fax if so consented by the investors.(4) The listed entity shall display the email address of the grievance redressal division and other relevant details prominently on its website and in the various materials / pamphlets/ advertisement campaigns initiated by it for creating investor awareness.This clause requires certain pool level information; useful information for the poolComment: As in case of other jurisdictions, the disclosure requirements are typically laid by the securities regulations
Terms of Securitized Debt InstrumentsReg 86(1) The listed entity shall ensure that no material modification shall be made to the structure of the securitized debt instruments in terms of coupon, conversion, redemption, or otherwise without prior approval of the recognised stock exchange(s) where the securitized debt instruments are listed and the listed entity shall make an application to the recognised stock exchange(s) only after the approval by Trustees.(2) The listed entity shall ensure timely interest/ redemption payment.(3) The listed entity shall ensure that where credit enhancement has been provided for, it shall make credit enhancement available for listed securitized debt instruments at all times.(4) The listed entity shall not forfeit unclaimed interest and principal and such unclaimed interest and principal shall be, after a period of seven years, transferred to the Investor Protection and Education Fund established under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Investor Protection and Education Fund) Regulations, 2009.(5) Unless the terms of issue provide otherwise, the listed entity shall not select any of its listed securitized debt instruments for redemption otherwise than on pro rata basis or by lot and shall promptly submit to the recognised stock exchange(s) the details thereof.(6) The listed entity shall remain listed till the maturity or redemption of securitised debt instruments or till the same are delisted as per the procedure laid down by the BoardProvided that the provisions of this sub-regulation shall not restrict the right of the recognised stock exchange(s) to delist, suspend or remove the securities at any time and for any reason which the recognised stock exchange(s) considers proper in accordance with the applicable legal provisions.This requires prior approval of the stock exchange to be obtained for making any material modification to the structure of SDIs. It also requires the originator to ensure timely payments of interest and for the credit enhancement to be available at all times. 
Record DateReg 87(1) The listed entity shall fix a record date for payment of interest and payment of redemption or repayment amount or for such other purposes as specified by the recognised stock exchange(s).(2) The listed entity shall give notice in advance of atleast seven working days (excluding the date of intimation and the record date) to the recognised stock exchange(s) of the record date or of as many days as the Stock Exchange may agree to or require specifying the purpose of the record date.This is for fixation of record date for payouts; useful for investor decisions for entry or exit.
Disclosure of Information having bearing on performance/ operation of listed entity and/ or price sensitive informationPart D of Schedule IIISeveral disclosure requirements for significant events and developmentsSee comments under reg 83

Other Resources: Buy our book on Securitised Debt Instruments here.

Repetitive Overhaul: RPT regime to get softer

– Team Corplaw | corplaw@vinodkothari.com

SEBI rolls out Consultation Paper: Materiality threshold for RPTs to be scale-based, Industry Standard to get softer, de minimis exemptions

Since 2021, the RPT framework for listed entities has been witnessing repetitive changes, and the current year 2025 has seen SEBI on a regulatory fast track in relation to RPTs.  Be it the launch of RPT Analysis Portal, offering unprecedented visibility into RPT governance data, or the Industry Standards Note (‘ISN’), requiring seemingly a pile of information w.r.t RPTs, both in the month of February, 2025. Originally scheduled to be effective from FY 25, the applicability of ISN was later pushed on to July 1, 2025, and while on the verge of becoming effective, on June 26, 2025, SEBI notified Revised RPT Industry Standards, prescribing tiered but somewhat simplified disclosure formats effective September 1, 2025.

Even before the ISN could become effective, a 32-pager consultation paper proposing further amendments to RPT provisions has been rolled out by SEBI on August 4, 2025.

Based on the “Ease of Doing Business” theme, the Consultation Paper proposes  amendments in the RPT framework, based on recommendations from the Advisory Committee on Listing Obligations and Disclosures (ACLOD). The proposals aim to address practical challenges faced by listed entities while maintaining robust governance standards.

Below we present the proposed amendments and our analysis of the same.

1. Materiality Thresholds: From One-Size-Fits-All to several sizes for short-and-tall

Proposal in CP

A scale-based threshold mechanism is proposed through a new Schedule XII to LODR Regulations, such that the RPT materiality threshold increases with the increase in the turnover of the company, though at a reduced rate, thus leading to an appropriate number of RPTs being categorized as material, thereby reducing the compliance burden of listed entities. The maximum upper ceiling of materiality has been kept at Rs. 5,000 crores, as against the existing absolute threshold of Rs. 1000 crores.

Proposed materiality thresholds:

Annual Consolidated Turnover of listed entity (in Crores)Proposed threshold (as a % of consolidated turnover)Maximum upper ceiling (in Crores)
< Rs.20,00010%2,000
20,001 – 40,0002,000 Crs + 5% above Rs. 20,000 Crs3,000
> 40,0003,000 Crs + 2.5% above Rs. 40,000 Crs5,000 (as proposed)

Back-testing the proposal scale on RPTs undertaken by top 100 NSE companies show a 60% reduction in material RPT approvals for FY 2023-24 and 2024-25 with total no. of such resolutions reducing from 235 and 293, to around 95 to 119. The 60% reduction may itself be seen as a bold admission that the present framework is causing too many proposals to go for shareholder approval.

Historical Benchmark

The absolute threshold of Rs. 1000 crores, for determination of RPTs as material was brought pursuant to an amendment in November 2021, following the recommendations of the Working Group on RPTs. The proposal of WG was based on the data between the years 2015 to 2019, which showed that only around 70 to 91 resolutions were placed for material RPT approvals by the top 500 listed entities.

Our Analysis and Comments

  • Turnover as a single metric is not a measure of materiality: Scale-based tests align materiality with turnover, introducing proportionality, but the question remains whether turnover itself is at all an appropriate yardstick to measure materiality.

Turnover is an inadequate metric for determining the materiality of RPTs. Materiality should reflect the likely financial impact of a transaction, which may have little or no correlation with turnover. For instance, transactions involving investments, asset acquisitions or disposals, or borrowings pertain to the balance sheet rather than the revenue-generating side of operations. Even if an item pertains to revenues, there are businesses where gross profits ratios are low, and therefore, turnover will be high. Globally, jurisdictions like the UK adopt a more nuanced, consonance-based approach [Refer Annex 1 of UKLR 7] using different parameters viz. gross assets test, consideration test, and the gross capital test for different transaction types to ensure relevance and proportionality. Section 188 of the Companies Act, 2013 also adopts a similar multi-metric approach, applying turnover and net worth, depending on the nature of the transaction.

It is also critical to recognise the wide disparity in asset-turnover ratio across industries. A trading company might turn its assets over 20 times annually, while a manufacturing entity with a 90-day working capital cycle may show a turnover approximately four times its assets. On the other hand, entities in the financial sector, such as NBFCs and banks, generate turnover largely through interest income, which is barely 6 to 10 percent of the asset base. Therefore, applying a turnover-based threshold to such entities results in thresholds being disproportionately low when compared to the actual scale of transactions, thereby distorting the materiality assessment.

Given these sectoral variations and the diversity of transaction types, a flat turnover-based threshold oversimplifies the assessment and may result in both overregulation and underreporting. A more calibrated, transaction-specific materiality framework, drawing on consonance-based criteria as seen in Regulation 30 of the LODR Regulations, would offer a more balanced and effective approach. SEBI may consider moving towards such a harmonised model to ensure that materiality thresholds meaningfully reflect the substance of transactions, rather than relying on a single yardstick.

  • Regulatory Lag: It took SEBI almost 4 years, i.e., from 2021 to 2025, to conclude that the threshold of ₹1,000 crores is too small, and that it requires an upward revision, which is now proposed to be increased to ₹5,000 crores. In the context of India’s rapidly growing economy, where turnover figures are expected to rise steadily, even this upwardly revised absolute threshold may soon lose relevance. Frequent threshold shifts risk “chasing” market realities rather than anticipating them. SEBI’s decision to cap at ₹5,000 crore reflects caution but may quickly become outdated.

2. Significant RPTs of Subsidiaries: Plugging Gaps with Dual Thresholds

Existing provisions vis-a-vis Proposal in CP

Pursuant to the amendments in 2021, RPTs exceeding a threshold of 10% of the standalone turnover of the subsidiary are considered as Significant RPTs, thus, requiring approval of the Audit Committee of the listed entity. The CP proposes the following modifications with respect to the thresholds of Significant RPTs of Subsidiaries:

  • ‘Material’ is always ‘Significant’: There may be instances where a transaction by a subsidiary may trigger the materiality threshold for shareholder approval, based on the consolidated turnover of the listed entity, but still fall below the 10% threshold of the subsidiary’s own standalone turnover. As a result, such a transaction would escape the scrutiny of the listed entity’s audit committee. This inconsistency highlights a regulatory gap and reinforces the need to revisit and revise the threshold criteria to ensure comprehensive oversight in a way that aligns with evolving group structures and scale of operations. RPTs of subsidiary would require listed holding company’s audit committee approval if they breach the lower of following limits:
  • 10% of the standalone turnover of the subsidiary or
    • Material RPT thresholds as applicable to listed holding company
  • Exemption for small value RPTs: The threshold for Significant RPTs is subject to an exemption for small value RPTs based on the absolute value of Rs. 1 crore. Thus, where a transaction between a subsidiary and a related party (of the listed entity/ subsidiary), on an aggregate, does not exceed Rs. 1 crore, the same is not required to be placed for approval of the Audit Committee of the listed entity, even if the aforesaid limits are breached.
  • Net Worth Alternative: For newly incorporated subsidiaries which are <1 year old, consequently not having audited financial statements for a period of at least one year, the threshold for Significant RPTs to be determined as below:
  • 10% of standalone net worth of the subsidiary (or share capital + securities premium, if negative net worth),
    • as on a date not more than 3 months prior to seeking AC’s approval
    • certified by a practising CA

Our Analysis and Comments

●      De-minimis exemption for significant RPTs of subsidiaries

The exemption for RPTs up to Rs. 1 crore in absolute terms might provide some relief for the holding entities, particularly, entities having various small subsidiaries, which, on a standalone basis, may not be material for the listed entity at all – however, the RPTs being significant at the subsidiary’s level still required approval of the parent’s audit committee. However, still the exemption threshold may be further enhanced to a higher limit, as a de minimis exemption of Rs. 1 crore entails the subsidiary having a turnover of mere Rs. 10 crores, which, from the perspective of a listed entity is a not a very practically beneficial scenario.

For newly incorporated companies not having a financial track record, linking the significant RPT threshold with net worth brings additional compliance burden in the form of certification requirements from PCA. Net worth alternative introduces valuation and certification burdens for newly incorporated entities, in which case It may be considerable to extend a blanket first year exemption of upto Rs. 5 crore, to balance ease of doing business for newly incorporated subsidiaries, the very decision of which would be stemming from the management of the parent listed entity. In fact, insisting on the net worth certificate itself seems unnecessary, as the net worth is mostly based on paid up capital, which does not warrant certification.

●      Need for easing inclusion of RPs of subsidiaries as RPs of listed entity

First of all, a statement of fact. The number of related parties of listed entities went for a significant explosion in November, 2021, where the definition of RP of a listed entity included RPs of subsidiaries. For any diversified group, there are typically several subsidiaries, each of them with their own independent boards.

While the proposals pertain to significant RPTs of subsidiaries, the most crucial component of the RPT framework lies in identification of RPs, which, under the current framework, covers RPs of subsidiaries as well. These RPs may be, many a times, companies in which the directors of the subsidiaries are holding mere directorships, often, an independent directorship. There is absolutely no scope of conflict of interests in dealing with companies where a person is interested, solely on account of his directorship where there is no direct or indirect shareholding or ownership interest. Such a situation has an explicit carve out under the Ind AS 24 as well, where an entity does not become a RP by the mere reason of having a common director or KMP [Para 11(a) of Ind AS 24]. While the Companies Act treats a company as an RP based on common directorship (in case of a private company), however, the extension of such definition to RPs of subsidiaries is pursuant to the provisions of SEBI LODR and hence, appropriate exclusions may be specified for under LODR.

3. Tiered Disclosures: Balancing Transparency and Burden

Existing provisions vis-a-vis Proposal in CP

The Industry Standards Note on RPTs, effective from 1st September, 2025 provides an exemption from disclosures as per ISN for RPTs aggregating to Rs. 1 crore in a FY. The proposal seeks to provide further relief from the ISN, by introducing a new slab for small-value RPTs aggregating to lower of:

  • 1% of annual consolidated turnover of the listed entity as per the last audited financial statements, or
  • Rs. 10 crore

In such cases, the disclosures are proposed to be given in the Annexure-2 of the Consultation Paper. The disclosure as per the Annexure is in line with the minimum information as is currently required to be placed by the listed entity before its Audit Committee in terms of SEBI Circular dated 22nd November, 2021 (currently subsumed in LODR Master Circular dated November 11, 2024). In the event of the same becoming effective, disclosures would be required in the following manner as per LODR:

Value of transactionDisclosure RequirementsApplicability of ISN
< Rs. 1 croreReg 23(3) of SEBI LODRNA – exempt as per ISN
> Rs 1 crore, but less than 1% of consolidated turnover of listed entity or Rs. 10 crores, whichever is lower (‘Moderate Value RPTs’)Annexure-2 of CP (Paragraph  4  under  Part  A  of  Section  III-B of SEBI Master Circular dated November 11, 2024)Proposed to be exempt from ISN
Other than Moderate Value RPTs but less than Material RPTs (specified transactions)Part A and B of ISNYes
Material RPTs (specified transactions are material)Part A, B and C of ISNYes
Other than Moderate Value RPTs but less than Material RPTs (other than specified transactions)Part A of ISNYes

 Our Analysis and Comments

The proposal would result in creation of multiple reference points with respect to disclosure requirements. As per the existing regulatory requirements, the disclosure requirements before the Audit Committee comes from the following sources:

  • Rule 6A of Companies (Meetings of Board and its Powers) Rules, 2014 – for listed entities incorporated as a company
  • Reg 23(3)(c) of SEBI LODR – for omnibus approvals
  • SEBI Circular dated 26th June, 2025 read with Industry Standards Note on RPTs – effective from 1st September 2025, for all RPTs other than exempted RPTs (aggregate value of upto Rs. 1 crore)

The proposal leads to an additional classification of RPTs into moderate value RPTs where limited disclosures in terms of the draft Circular will be applicable. While the introduction of differentiated disclosure thresholds aims to rationalise compliance, care must be taken to ensure that the disclosure framework does not become overly template-driven. RPTs, by nature, require contextual judgment, and a uniform disclosure format may not always capture the nuances of each case. It is therefore important that the regulatory design continues to place trust in the informed discretion of the Audit Committee, allowing it the flexibility to seek additional information where necessary, beyond the prescribed formats.

4. Clarification w.r.t. validity of shareholders’ Omnibus Approval

Existing provisions vis-a-vis Proposal in CP

The existing provisions [Para (C)11 of Section III-B of LODR Master Circular] permit the validity of the omnibus approval by shareholders for material RPTs as:

  • From AGM to AGM – in case approval is obtained in an AGM
  • One year – in case approval is obtained in any other general meeting/ postal ballot

A clarification is proposed to be incorporated that the AGM to AGM approval will be valid for a period of not more than 15 months, in alignment with the maximum timeline for calling AGM as per section 96 of the Companies Act.

Further, the provisions, currently a part of the LODR Master Circular, are proposed to be embedded as a part of Reg 23(4) of LODR.

5. Exemptions & Definitions: Pruning Redundancies

Problem Statement

Proviso (e) to Regulation 2(1)(zc) of the SEBI LODR Regulations exempts transactions involving retail purchases by employees from being classified as Related Party Transactions (RPTs), even though employees are not technically classified as related parties. Conversely, it includes transactions involving the relatives of directors and Key Managerial Personnel (KMPs) within its ambit. Additionally, Regulation 23(5)(b) provides an exemption from audit committee and shareholder approvals for transactions between a holding company and its wholly owned subsidiary. However, the term “holding company” used in this context has remained undefined, leaving ambiguity as to whether it refers only to a listed holding company or includes unlisted ones as well.

Proposal in CP

The Consultation Paper proposes two key clarifications:

  1. The exemption related to retail transactions should be expressly limited to related parties (i.e., directors, KMPs, or their relatives) to grant the appropriate exemption.
  2. The exemption for transactions with wholly owned subsidiaries should apply only where the holding company is also a listed entity, thereby excluding unlisted holding structures from this relaxation

Our Analysis and Comments

Under the existing framework, retail purchases made on the same terms as applicable to all employees are exempt when undertaken by employees, but not when made by relatives of directors or KMPs. This has led to an inconsistent treatment, where similarly situated individuals receive different regulatory treatment solely on the basis of their relationship with the company. The proposed language attempts to streamline this by including such relatives within the exemption, but it introduces its own drafting concern.

  • The phrasing – “retail purchases from any listed entity or its subsidiary by its directors or its employees key managerial personnel(s) or their relatives, without establishing a business relationship and at the terms which are uniformly applicable/offered to all employees and directors and key managerial personnel(s)” – creates a potential loophole. As worded, the exemption could be interpreted to cover purchases made on favourable terms offered to directors or KMPs themselves, rather than being benchmarked against terms applicable to employees at large. The intended spirit of the provision seems to be to exempt only those transactions where the terms are genuinely uniform and non-preferential. A more appropriate construction would make it clear that the exemption is intended to apply only where such transactions mirror employee-level retail transactions, not privileged arrangements for senior management.
  • Regarding the exemption under Regulation 23(5)(b) for transactions between a holding company and its wholly owned subsidiary, this clarification seeks to align the treatment under Regulations 23(5)(b) and 23(5)(c). While this provides helpful interpretational guidance, incorporating the word “listed” directly into the text of the Regulation itself could offer greater precision and eliminate the need for retrospective explanations. Since unlisted holding companies are not subject to LODR, they are unlikely to have interpreted the exemption as applicable in the first place. As such, a simple prospective clarification might serve the purpose more effectively.

Conclusion

SEBI’s August 2025 proposals are largely aimed at relaxation, though in some cases, the ability to think beyond the existing track of the law seems missing. With the new leadership at SEBI meant to rationalise regulations, it was quite an appropriate occasion to do so. However, at many places, the August 2025 proposals are simply making tinkering changes in 2021 amendments and fine-tuning the June 2025 ISN. In sum, SEBI’s iterative approach to RPT governance demonstrates commendable responsiveness but calls for a holistic RPT policy road-map, harmonizing LODR regulations, circulars, and guidelines. Only a forward-looking, principles-based framework, will deliver the twin objectives of ease of doing business and investor protection in the long run.

Read More:

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Tailored to Fit Practically: Disclosure for RPTs under Revised Industry Standards

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Understanding the Governance & Compliance Framework for AIFs

– Payal Agarwal, Partner | payal@vinodkothari.com

Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are private investment vehicles registered with and regulated by SEBI. Private investment vehicles, as is understood, are investment vehicles that pool investments from investors on a private basis, and make investments in investee entities based on the investment objectives disclosed to the investors. The returns from such investments, net of the expenses incurred by the vehicle, is distributed back to the investors. A typical AIF structure would look like:

The general obligations of AIFs are provided in the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012 read with the circulars issued from time to time. In addition to that, the Standard Setting Forum for AIFs (SFA) formulates implementation standards for various compliance requirements, as required by SEBI from time to time.

As may be understood, the AIF takes funds from its investors and makes investments in the investees. As between the sponsor/ manager of the Fund and the investors, there is a fiduciary relationship – since the investment decisions taken by the fund manager is on behalf of the investors, and in accordance with the investment objectives disclosed to the investors. Investor protection and transparency and proper due diligence of the investees become crucial in the context of an AIF. As compared to a traditional company, the AIFs are intermediaries between the investors and investees. This article discusses the various compliance requirements as applicable to AIFs.

Governance structure of AIFs

  • Governing body of AIF: Depending on the legal form of the AIF, the governing body of the AIF may compose of trustee (in case of a trust), directors (in case of a company) or designated partners (in case of an LLP).
  • Manager: The primary responsibility of ensuring compliance with the applicable provisions by an AIF is on the manager of the AIF. Similarly, ensuring compliance with the internal policies and procedures of an AIF is also the responsibility of the manager. The manager is appointed by an AIF, and the Sponsor may also be the manager of the Fund.
  • Investment Committee: Constituted by the manager, the Investment Committee approves the decisions of the AIF and is responsible for ensuring that such decisions are in compliance with the policies and procedures laid down by the AIF. The Investment Committee may be composed of internal members (employees, directors or partners of the Manager) as well as external investors (with the approval of the investors in the AIF/ Scheme). The external members may include ex-officio members who represent the sponsor, sponsor group, manager group or investors, in their official capacity. Pending clarification from RBI, currently non-resident Indian citizens are not permitted to act as an external member in the Investment Committee [Reg 20(7) of AIF Regulations read with Chapter 14 of AIF Master Circular].

The responsibilities of the Investment Committee may be waived by the investors (other than the Manager, Sponsor, and employees/ directors of Manager and AIF), if they have a commitment of at least Rs. 70 crores (USD 10 billion or other equivalent currency), by providing an undertaking to such effect, in the format as provided under Annexure 11 of the AIF Master Circular, including a confirmation that they have the independent ability and mechanism to carry out due diligence of the investments.

  • Key Management Personnel: Key Management Personnel (KMP) of the Manager has been defined to mean:
    • members of key investment team of the Manager, as disclosed in the PPM of the fund;
    • employees who are involved in decision making on behalf of the AIF, including but not limited to, members of senior management team at the level of Managing Director, Chief Executive Officer, Chief Investment Officer, Whole Time Directors, or such equivalent role or position;
    • any other person whom the AIF (through the Trustee, Board of Directors or Designated Partners, as the case may be) or Manager may declare as key management personnel. [Para 13.1.2. of the AIF Master Circular]

The responsibilities of the Manager are complied through the Key Management Personnel of such Manager.

  • Compliance Officer: The Compliance Officer is appointed by the Manager, and is responsible for monitoring of compliance with the applicable laws and requirements as applicable to the AIF. Compliance Officer, shall be an employee or director of the Manager, other than Chief Executive Officer of the Manager or such equivalent role or position depending on the legal structure of Manager [Para 13.1.1. of the AIF Master Circular].

The Compliance Officer is responsible to report any non-compliance observed by him within 7 days from the date of observing such non-compliance.

  • Custodian: The Sponsor/ Manager of the AIF is required to appoint a custodian, registered with SEBI, for safekeeping of the securities of the AIF. An associate[1] of the Sponsor/ Manager may also act as a custodian, subject to compliance with certain conditions[2]. The custodian provides periodic reports to SEBI with respect to the investments of AIFs that are under custody with the custodian in accordance with the standards formulated by SFA.

The various roles and responsibilities at the different levels of the governance structure is discussed below.

Code of Conduct for AIFs [Reg 20(1) of AIF Regulations]

The Code of Conduct, as prescribed under the AIF Regulations, puts forth various requirements applicable to the AIFs and other relevant entities. The Code of Conduct is applicable to various responsibility centers charged with the governance requirements in an AIF. The requirements are given in the Fourth Schedule to the AIF Regulations read with Para 13.3. of the AIF Master Circular.

The applicability to various stakeholders along with the requirements are given in the table below:

Person covered by the CoC Requirements to be adhered to under the CoC
AIF
  • Undertake business activities and investments in accordance with the investment objectives in the placement memorandum and other fund documents [to be ensured by the Manager]
  • Be operated in the interest of all investors, and not limited to select investors, sponsor, manager etc [to be ensured by the Manager]
  • Ensure timely and adequate dissemination of information to all investors
  • Ensure existence of effective risk management process and appropriate internal controls
  • Have written policies for mitigation of any potential conflict of interest
  • Prohibition on use of any unethical means to sell, market or induce any investor to buy its units
  • Have written policies and procedures to comply with anti-money laundering lawsnot offer any assured returns to any prospective investors/unitholders.
  • Manager of AIF
  • KMP of Manager
  • KMP of AIF
  • Abide by the laws applicable to AIFs at all times
  • Maintain integrity, highest ethical and professional standards in all its dealings
  • Ensure proper care and exercise due diligence and independent professional judgment in all its decisions
  • Act in a fiduciary capacity towards investors of AIF and ensure that decisions are taken in the interest of the investors
  • Abide by the policies of AIF in relation to potential conflict of interests
  • Not make any misleading or inaccurate statement, whether oral or written, either about their qualifications or capability to render investment management services or their achievements
  • Record in writing, the investment, divestment and other key decisions, together with appropriate justification for such decisions;
  • Provide appropriate and well considered inputs, which are not misleading, as required by the valuer to carry out appropriate valuation of the portfolio;
  • Prohibition on entering into arrangements for sale or purchase of securities, where there is no effective change in beneficial interest or where the transfer of beneficial interest is only between parties who are acting in concert or collusion, other than for bona fide and legally valid reasons;
  • Abide by confidentiality agreements with the investors and not make improper use of the details of personal investments and/or other information of investors;
  • Not offer or accept any inducement in connection with the affairs of or business of managing the funds of investors;
  • Document all relevant correspondence and understanding during a deal with counterparties as per the records of the AIF, if they have committed to the transactions on behalf of AIF
  • Maintain ethical standards of conduct and deal fairly and honestly with investee companies at all times; and
  • Maintain confidentiality of information received from investee companies and companies seeking investments from AIF, unless explicit confirmation is received that such information is not subject to any non-disclosure agreement.
  • Ensure availability of the PPM to the investors prior to providing commitment or making investment in the AIF and an acknowledgment be received from the investor
  • Ensure scheme-wise segregation of bank accounts and securities accountsnot offer any assured returns to any prospective investors/unitholders.
  • Members of Investment Committee
  • Trustee/ Trustee company
  • Directors of Trustee company
  • Directors of AIF
  • Designated Partners of AIF
  • Maintain integrity and the highest ethical and professional standards of conduct
  • Ensure proper care and exercise due diligence and independent professional judgment
  • Disclose details of any conflict of interest relating to any/all decisions in a timely manner to the Manager of the AIF, adhere with the policies and procedures of the AIF with respect to any conflict of interest and wherever necessary, recuse themselves from the decision making process;
  • Maintain confidentiality of information received regarding AIF, its investors and investee companies; unless explicit confirmation is received that such information is not subject to any non-disclosure agreement.
  • Not indulge in any unethical practice or professional misconduct or any act, whether by omission or commission, which tantamount to gross negligence or fraud
  • Not offer any assured returns to any prospective investors/unitholders.
Compliance with Stewardship Code

The AIFs, being institutional investors, it is mandatory for AIFs to comply with the Stewardship Code in terms of Para 13.4 of the AIF Master Circular. This is applicable in respect of investments in listed equity instruments. Annexure 10 of the Master Circular specifies the broad principles of stewardship and provides guidance for its implementation. Further, the AIFs are required to report the status of implementation of the principles atleast on an annual basis (periodicity may differ for different principles), through the website of the AIFs. Such report may also be sent as a part of annual intimation to its clients/ beneficiaries. An article on the stewardship responsibilities of institutional investors may be read here.

Policies to be formulated by AIFs

In order to ensure that the decisions of the AIF are taken in compliance with all applicable laws and regulations, PPM, investor agreements and other fund documents, detailed policies and procedures are required to be kept in place in terms of Reg 20(3). The policies are jointly approved by:

  • Manager and
  • Relevant governing body of the AIF (viz., the trustee/ trustee company/ board of directors/ designated partners etc)

The Manager is required to ensure that the decisions taken by the AIF are in compliance with such policies and procedures.

Further, the policies should be reviewed periodically, on a regular basis and whenever required as a result of business developments, to ensure their continued appropriateness.

Audit

Annual Audit of terms of PPM

The AIF is required to file Private Placement Memorandum (PPM) with SEBI through a Merchant Banker for the launch of Schemes. The format of PPM is specified under Annexure 1 read with the requirements specified under various other circulars from time to time. In order to ensure that the activities of the AIF are in compliance with the terms of PPM, annual audit of the terms of PPM is required to be done. In this regard, the following needs to be noted:

  • Scope of audit: Compliance with all sections of the PPM. Further, audit of the following sections is optional, viz., ‘Risk Factors’, ‘Legal, Regulatory and Tax Considerations’ and ‘Track Record of First Time Managers’. The format of PPM audit report may be accessed here.
  • Eligibility to conduct audit: an internal or external auditor/legal professional
  • Periodicity of PPM audit: Annual
  • Timeline: within 6 months from the end of the Financial Year
  • Reported to: Governing Body (Trustee or Board of Directors or Designated Partners) of the AIF, Board of directors or Designated Partners of the Manager and SEBI
  • Non-applicability: if no funds are raised from investors, subject to submission of a certificate from CA to that effect within 6 months from end of FY
  • Exemptions: (i) Angel Funds, (ii) AIFs/ Schemes with each investor having a minimum commitment of Rs. 70 crores (USD 10 mn or equivalent), upon providing a waiver for the same. 
Audit of accounts

Reg 20(14) of the AIF Regulations require the books of account to be audited by a qualified auditor annually.

Valuation of Investments of AIF

Reg 23 read with Chapter 22 of the AIF Master Circular specifies the requirements with respect to the valuation of the investments of AIF. The valuation is required to be done by an independent valuer, on a half-yearly basis (may be made an annual requirement subject to consent of 75% of investors in value).

Eligibility criteria have been specified for acting as an independent valuer:

  • shall not be an associate of manager or sponsor or trustee of the AIF
  • shall have at least three years of experience in valuation of unlisted securities
  • shall be a registered valuer with IBBI and a member of ICAI, ICSI or ICMAI or shall be a holding or subsidiary of SEBI-registered CRA

The Manager shall specifically inform the investors, the reasons/ factors for deviation in valuation, in case the deviation is more than:

  • 20% between two consecutive valuations, or
  • 33% in a financial year

In case of Cat III AIFs, the listed and unlisted debt securities are required to be valued by an independent valuer, and the NAV is required to be reported on a quarterly basis for close ended funds, and monthly basis for open ended funds.

Investor complaints and Grievance Redressal Mechanism

Resolution of investor complaints is a role of the Manager of AIF [Reg 24 of AIF Regulations]. Reg 24A requires the Manager to redress investor grievances in a prompt manner, but within a maximum of 21 days from receipt of grievances. The AIF is required to be registered on the SCORES portal for receipt of investor grievances. Further, in terms of Reg 25, the dispute resolution mechanism provided by SEBI (SMARTODR) is applicable to AIFs as well. Refer details under Master Circular for Online Resolution of Disputes in the Indian Securities Market dated 28th December, 2023.

Further, in terms of Para 17.4 of the AIF Master Circular, the AIFs are required to maintain data on investor complaints received against the AIF/ its Schemes on a quarterly basis within 7 days from the end of the quarter, in addition to the disclosure in the PPM. The data includes the following:

S. No. Investor Complaints received from Pending as at the end of the last quarter Received Resolved Total Pending at the end of the quarter Pending complaints > 3months Average Resolution time ^ (in days )
1 Directly from Investors            
2 SEBI (SCORES)            
3 Other Sources            

Matters requiring consent of investors of AIF

The AIFs act in a fiduciary capacity towards the investors, and manage the funds of the investors invested in the AIF. Thus, the decisions of AIF are required to be taken in the interests of the investors. Some matters require approval of the investors of a specified majority, prior to undertaking such activity:

Regulatory reference Matter requiring approval Requisite majority in terms of value of investment 
Reg 9(2) Material alteration to fund strategy 2/3rd of unitholders
Reg 13(5) Extension of tenure of close-ended funds (upto 2 years) 2/3rd of unitholders
Reg 15(1)(e) Investment in associates or units of AIFs managed/ sponsored by its Manager, Sponsor or associates of its Manager or Sponsor 75% of investors
Reg 15(1)(ea) Purchase or sale of investments from/ to: Associates Schemes of AIF managed or sponsored by its Manager, Sponsor or associates of its Manager or Sponsoran investor who has committed to invest at least fifty percent of the corpus of the scheme of AIF 75% of investors, excluding investor covered under (c) where purchase/ sale is from such investor
Reg 20(10) Appointment of external members (other than ex-officio members) in Investment Committee other than as disclosed in the fund documents 75% of investors
Reg 23(2) Reducing frequency of valuation of investments from six months to 1 year 75% of investors
Reg 29(9) In-specie distribution of investments of AIF due to lack of liquidity or enter into liquidation period 75% of investors

Disclosure to investors

The funds of the investors invested in the AIF are managed by the Manager and Sponsor in a fiduciary capacity. In order to ensure transparency, various disclosure requirements apply in terms of Reg 22 of the AIF Regulations – either on a periodic basis or upon the happening of certain events.

Periodic disclosures

The periodic disclosures include:

  • financial, risk management, operational, portfolio, and transactional information regarding fund investments
  • any fees ascribed to the Manager or Sponsor; and any fees charged to the AIF or any investee company by an associate of the Manager or Sponsor

Further, in terms of clause (g) of Reg 22, the following information is required to be disclosed within 180 days from the year end (60 days from the end of each quarter for Cat III AIF):

  • financial information of investee companies.
  • material risks and how they are managed which may include:
    • concentration risk at fund level;
    • foreign exchange risk at fund level;
    • leverage risk at fund and investee company levels;
    • realization risk (i.e. change in exit environment) at fund and investee company levels;
    • strategy risk (i.e. change in or divergence from business strategy) at investee company level;
    • reputation risk at investee company level;
    • extra-financial risks, including environmental, social and corporate governance risks, at fund and investee company level.

Any changes in terms of PPM or other fund documents are required to be intimated to the investors on a consolidated basis within 1 month from the end of each financial year [Para 2.5.3. of AIF Master Circular]

Event-based disclosures

These events are required to be disclosed ‘as and when occurred’:

  • any inquiries/ legal actions by legal or regulatory bodies in any jurisdiction
  • any material liability arising during the AIF’s tenure
  • any breach of a provision of the placement memorandum or agreement made with the investor or any other fund documents
  • change in control of the Sponsor or Manager or Investee Company
  • any significant change in the key investment team

Matters requiring reporting to SEBI

Reg 28 provides power to SEBI to seek such information from the AIFs, as may be required, from time to time. In addition to such powers, there are various specific reporting requirements that are applicable on AIFs under various applicable provisions. These include:

Regulatory reference Matters requiring reporting to SEBI Timelines
Reg 20(12) Any material change from the information provided at the time of application Promptly
Reg 26 Information for systemic risk purposes (including the identification, analysis and mitigation of systemic risks) when so required by SEBI
Para 2.5.2 Any changes in the terms of PPM and other fund documents, along with DD certificate from Merchant Banker  within 1 month from the end of FY
Para 15.1 Reporting on investment activities of AIF in the format specified by SFA 15 calendar days from end of each quarter
Para 15.2 Any violations reported in the Compliance Test Report (refer detailed discussion below) As soon as possible
Reg 20(11) r/w Para 15.4. Investments of AIF that are in custody of the custodian Quarterly

Compliance with provisions applicable to SEBI-registered intermediaries

An AIF, in its capacity of a SEBI-registered intermediary, is required to comply with the SEBI (Intermediaries) Regulations, 2008 read with the circulars issued thereunder. These include, for instance, compliance with the circulars/guidelines as may be issued by SEBI with respect to KYC requirements, Anti-Money Laundering and Outsourcing of activities [Para 13.5 of AIF Master Circular].

The guidelines with respect to anti-money laundering and KYC requirements are contained in a Master Circular dated 6th June, 2024 on the subject. Our various resources on KYC and anti-money laundering can be accessed here.

Compliance Test Report

The manager of AIF is required to report the compliances with various applicable provisions of the AIF Regulations read with the circulars made thereunder, on an annual basis. CTR is submitted within 30 days from the end of the financial year, to the sponsor and trustee (in case AIF is set up as a trust). The trustee/ sponsor provides their comments on the CTR to the manager within 30 days from the receipt of CTR, based on which the manager shall make necessary changes and provide a response within the next 15 days. 

A significant aspect of the CTR is that any violation observed by the trustee/ sponsor is required to be intimated to SEBI, as soon as possible. This requirement is in addition to the obligation of the Compliance Officer to report a non-compliance, within 7 days of becoming aware of the same. The format of CTR is provided in Annexure 12 of the AIF Master Circular.

Other compliances

SEBI specifies various compliances applicable to the AIFs from time to time. The compliances as applicable to the AIFs for the first time during FY 25-26 has been dealt with in our article Regulatory landscape for AIFs: what’s new? Further, there are certain requirements applicable on special categories of AIFs, viz., angel funds, Special Situation Funds, Social Venture Funds etc. Further, there are various prudential requirements applicable to receipt of funds from investors and making of investments by the AIFs.

See our other resources on AIFs:


[1] Associate means:

  • a company or a limited liability partnership or a body corporate
  • in which a director or trustee or partner or Sponsor or Manager of the Alternative Investment Fund or a director or partner of the Manager or Sponsor
  • holds, either individually or collectively, more than fifteen percent of its paid-up equity share capital or partnership interest, as the case may be

[2] The conditions include:

(a) Minimum net worth of the Sponsor or Manager of at least twenty thousand crore rupees at all points of time;

(b) fifty per cent or more of the directors of the Custodian do not represent the interest of the Sponsor or Manager or their associates;

(c) the Custodian and the Sponsor or Manager of AIF are not subsidiaries of each other;

(d) the custodian and the Sponsor or Manager of AIF do not have common directors; and

(e) the Custodian and the Manager of AIF sign an undertaking that they shall act independently of each other in their dealings of the schemes of AIF.

Tailored to Fit Practically: Disclosure for RPTs under Revised Industry Standards

Disclosure requirements rationalised and simplified under the ISN for RPTs

Team Corplaw | corplaw@vinodkothari.com

  • Revised regulatory regime on RPT disclosures before Audit Committee & Shareholders
    • Reg 23 of LODR Regulations
    • Industry Standards Note on Minimum information to be provided to the Audit Committee and Shareholders for approval of Related Party Transactions  (as revised) dated June 26, 2025 (“RPT ISN”).
  • Applicability of RPT ISN
    • with effect from 1st September, 2025 (‘Effective Date’)
Approval of ACApproval of shareholders (in case of material RPTs)Date of execution of RPTsApplicability of RPT ISN
Before Effective DateBefore Effective DateAfter Effective DateNot Applicable
Before Effective DateAfter Effective DateAfter Effective DateNot Applicable
After Effective DateAfter Effective DateAfter Effective DateApplicable
  • Any subsequent material modification, renewal, ratification etc. after the Effective Date should require detailed disclosures as per RPT ISN
  • Exemption from applicability of RPT ISN
    • Exempted RPTs: RPTs exempt from approval requirements under Reg 23(5) of LODR
    • Small value RPTs: Transactions with a related party for an aggregate value of upto Rs. 1 crore in a FY
    • RPTs placed for quarterly review under Reg. 23(3)(d).
  • Minimum information to AC divided into 3 parts
    • Part A – Minimum information of the proposed RPT, applicable to all RPTs (Para A1 to A5)
    • Part B – Additional information applicable to proposed RPTs of specified nature (Para B1 to B7)
    • Part C – Additional information applicable to Material RPTs (as per Reg 23 of LODR) of specified nature (Para C1 to C6)
  • Certification requirement to AC (‘KMP certificate’)
    • From
      • CEO/ Managing Director/ Whole-time Director/ Manager and
      • CFO of the listed entity
    • To the effect that
      • RPTs proposed to be entered are in the interest of the listed entity
    • Role of AC
      • To review the certificate – the fact to be disclosed in the notice to shareholders
  • Minimum information to shareholders
    • Information as may be required under CA, 2013
    • Information as placed before AC in terms of RPT ISN
      • AC may approve redaction of commercial secrets and such other information that would affect competitive position of listed entity
        • Subject to affirmation that, in its assessment, the redacted disclosures still provide all the necessary information to the public shareholders for informed decision making
    • Justification as to the transaction in the interest of the listed entity
    • Basis for determination of price and other material terms and conditions of RPTs
    • Affirmation that AC has reviewed the KMP certificate on proposed RPTs
    • Disclosure of approval of AC and recommendation of board
    • Web-link and QR code of third-party reports/ valuation report, if any, considered by AC
  • Role of Management
    • Management to provide information against each line-item
      • Indicate NA, where field is not applicable along with reason for non-applicability
  • Comments/ decision of AC
    • AC may provide comments on any line-item, based on its discretion
    • Rationale to be disclosed, in case an RPT is not approved
    • Comments and rationale to be minutised
  • Furnishing of valuation/ third party report
    • To be furnished to AC, if any
    • Web-link and QR code to be disclosed in shareholders’ notice, if considered by AC

Our analysis of the detailed disclosure requirements on relevant line-items are being collated in the form of FAQs. Keep checking our website for more.  


Our other resources

ESOPs for founders: Well intended relief, garbled by language?

SEBI’s explanation remains ambiguous on share options granted to start-up promoters

– Payal Agarwal, Partner & Sakshi Patil, Executive

Starting a company often means wearing multiple hats. In these early stages, many founders structure their compensation through Employee Stock Option Plans (“ESOPs”) rather than traditional salaries. This arrangement makes perfect sense when resources are tight and every rupee earned needs to be reinvested into growth of the company. ESOPs align founders’ interests with the company’s long term success.

But here’s when things get complicated: the companies grow and prepare to go ‘public’; the founders find themselves classified as “promoters” under SEBI (Issue of Capital and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018 (“ICDR Regulations”). With more risks than rewards, they find themselves in a position, where their earlier ESOP grants, reflecting the growth of the company built by them, though perfectly valid during the grant, may now be taken away.

Recognising this unfair situation, at its meeting held on June 18, 2025, SEBI has approved an amendment providing regulatory relief for founders of companies who hold ESOPs and are subsequently classified as promoters at the time of an IPO. The amendment seeks to clarify the position of ESOPs and other share based benefits, granted to promoters and promoter group members prior to categorisation as such, and permit the exercise of such grants even after listing of the company.

While the amendments seek to enable founders in IPO-bound companies to avail of the share based benefits granted to them, the language of the explanation falls short of the intent. In this article, we discuss the need for the amendments in line with the existing scenario, how the amendments seek to meet the need and the gap that remains.

Proposal laid down in Consultation Paper

The proposal approved by SEBI in its recent BM is based on the proposal contained in its consultation paper dated March 20, 2025 to include an explanation under Regulation 9(6) of SBEB Regulations.

As per the Para 3.5.1 of the Consultation paper, SEBI had proposed to include an explanation may be inserted under regulation 9(6) of SBEB Regulations which would state:

Explanation 2: an  employee, identified  as  a “promoter”  or  “promoter  group”  in the draft offer document filed by a company in relation to an initial public offering, who was granted  options, SARs or other benefits  under  any  scheme prior to being identified as a “promoter” or “promoter group”, as the case may be, shall be eligible to continue to hold, exercise or avail any such option, SAR or benefit, in accordance with its terms and granted, prior to one year from the date when the Company (i.e. its’ Board) decides to undertake Initial Public Offering and, in compliance with these Regulations.

The proposed explanation provides a clarification with respect to holding or exercise of share options or other similar benefits granted to an employee, identified as promoter/ promoter group in the DRHP, subject to the following conditions:

  1. The grant of options or benefits must have been made prior to the employee being identified as a ‘promoter’ or ‘promoter group’; and
  2. The grant must have occurred at least one year prior to the Board’s decision to undertake an IPO.

These conditions have been discussed in detail in the later part of this article. Before that, it is necessary to understand the need for the amendment.

Need for the amendment: prohibition on promoters holding ESOPs

An explanation to Rule 12(1) of the Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Rules, 2014 excludes a promoter or a person belonging to the promoter group from the definition of ‘employee’, in the context of eligibility for grant of ESOPs.

However, pursuant to Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Third Amendment Rules, 2016 Dated July 19, 2016, a proviso has been added to the aforesaid explanation that provides an exemption for start-up companies up to ten years from the date of its incorporation or registration. Therefore, in case of a start-up, a promoter or member of promoter group may also be issued ESOPs upto 10 years from the date of its incorporation.

Similar prohibition applies to a listed entity, as per Reg  2(1)(i) of SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits and Sweat Equity) Regulations, 2021, pursuant to  which, an employee does not include a promoter or a person belonging to promoter group. There is no exemption for a start-up company under the said Regulations.

Founder or promoter : a question of identity

The term ‘promoter’ is defined in an almost similar fashion in both Companies Act, 2013 (“ and ICDR Regulations.  As per the definition, there are three limbs to the definition of promoter, being:

  1. Promoter by proclamation: that is, the person who is named as promoter in the offer documents or the annual return.
  2. Promoter by control: that is, a person having control over affairs, whether as shareholder, director or otherwise, directly or indirectly.
  3. Promoter by absentee control: that is, by orchestrating the affairs of the company by giving instructions to the board of directors, which the latter is accustomed to adhere to.

Further, the term ‘promoter group’, is not a defined term under the Companies Act, 2013 and hence, may be open to interpretation.

On the question of whether or not every founder may be considered as promoters, what needs to be understood is that while the founder may be the one who initiates the idea of the start-up, it may so happen that subsequent to new investors coming in, the founder may gradually lose his powers to control the affairs of the company. The board becomes independent, the private equity investors get to have a call in various matters, and the powers get diluted, pursuant to which the founder may not be recognised as a promoter after all.

However, the stock exchanges apply various additional criteria for considering a person as ‘promoter’, some of which may categorise a Founder as promoter, regardless of whether the same is holding ‘control’ in the company or not. 

For instance, as per news reports[1], the guidance issued by NSE for promoter categorisation in case of an IPO-bound company, requires founders to be categorised as promoters if:

  1. They hold a position or have the right to be nominated, as a director or KMP/SMP; and
  2. They have a collective shareholding of 10% or more of the equity shares (including options which are vested till the date of listing) of the company, either directly or through any legal entities or persons controlled by such founder or his/her immediate relatives.

Therefore, even when a founder may not be holding ‘control’ in a company, he may be categorised as a promoter by holding options if they are crossing the 10% threshold.

Fate of ESOPs issued to founders, later turned promoters

The SBEB Regulations, as discussed above, do not allow promoters to hold ESOPs or other share based benefits in a listed entity. Although applicable to listed entities, the compliance is required to be ensured at the stage of filing of DRHP, and hence, IPO-bound companies are also covered.

While the Regulations exclude the promoters from the definition of an employee eligible for the receipt of ESOPs, it does not clarify the treatment of options that are already granted to promoters, prior to such classification. This led to a confusion in case of options issued to Founders-turned-Promoters, putting the fate of such granted options in a grey area.

In case a view is taken that such options need to be liquidated, and the benefits thus accruing, has to be foregone, at the time of identification as a promoter, the same would not be justified. It is not on their own wish to become a promoter, and since the options are part of the remuneration of the Founders as employees, granting them an immunity for  such options is needed.

Decoding the conditions for exemption

1.     Grant of options prior to identification as promoter or promoter group

The purpose of the amendments is to primarily cover the ‘founders’ of start-up companies, where it would be typical to give share based options to incentivise the founders and as a remuneration against the services offered by such employees.

As discussed above, there may be situations where a person, though a founder of the company, was not categorised as promoter under CA, 2013. However, pursuant to the categorisation conditions followed by the SEs, during filing of DRHP, may get covered as a ‘promoter’ or ‘promoter group member’.

The explanation refers to grant of share based benefits, prior to being identified as a “promoter” or “promoter group”, and thus, refers to such employees/ founders who were not categorised as promoter/ promoter group prior to grant of options.

However, consider the case of a founder of a start-up who was identified as a promoter since inception, but was granted ESOPs pursuant to the exemption available to start-ups under CA, 2013. If the company later decides to go for listing, it remains unclear whether such ESOPs would remain valid under this proposed explanation. This is because, technically, the first condition requiring that the ESOP grant be made before the individual was identified as a promoter, is not satisfied in such cases.

This condition risks contradicting the very objective of the amendment, which is to safeguard pre-IPO entitlements granted to founders while ensuring regulatory safeguards for promoters are maintained at the time of listing. The start-up related exemption, as available to the promoters under CA, 2013 is with the objective of permitting the founders, whether promoter or otherwise, to be benefitted from the growth of the company and be entitled to share based benefits.

2.     Grant must have occurred at least one year prior to the Board’s decision to undertake an IPO

The condition requires the options or other benefits to have been granted at least 1 year prior to the board’s decision of undertaking an IPO. The clause provides a cooling off period between the grant of options and the company’s IPO decision, so as to prevent situations where companies might quickly issue ESOPs or other share based benefits to promoters just before going public, thus taking benefit in ingenuine cases.

The one year requirement is a reasonable safeguard, as it helps protect the interest of public shareholders and ensure that such grants are made in advance to genuine employees only as a reward for their contribution to the company and not as an opportunistic benefit tied to the IPO.

Conclusion

While SEBI’s proposal to introduce an explanation under Regulation 9(6) of the SBEB Regulations is a well-intended step towards addressing the gaps affecting founders of start-ups, its current framing leaves room for ambiguity.

The final wording of the amendment, once notified, will be pivotal in determining whether this balance between protecting founders’ rights and maintaining necessary safeguards for promoters. It is hoped that SEBI will clearly address this issue in the final version, so that the real purpose of the amendment is not lost in technical wording.


[1] https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/ipo/executive-startup-founders-holding-more-than-10-stake-may-be-categorised-as-promoters-12508551.html


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